Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2025/2017 of 8 October 2025 amending Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127 as regards the protein-related requirements for infant and follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates

Official Journalof the European Union ENL series
2025/2017 12.12.2025
(1) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127(2)lays down specific compositional requirements for infant and follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates. It provides that infant and follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates are to comply with the requirements for protein content, protein source, protein processing, as well as with the requirements for indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitine as set out in point 2.3 of Annex I and in point 2.3 of Annex II to that Regulation.
(2) In its opinion of 24 July 2014 on the essential composition of infant and follow-on formulae(3), the European Food Safety Authority (‘the Authority’) noted that the safety and suitability of each specific formula containing protein hydrolysates has to be established by clinical evaluation in the target population. So far, the Authority has positively evaluated four protein hydrolysates used in infant and follow-on formulae. The composition of those four protein hydrolysates is included in the requirements currently set out in Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127. However, those requirements may be updated in order to allow the placing on the market of a formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates with a different composition from those already positively assessed, following their evaluation by the Authority of their safety and suitability.
(3) On 3 June 2021, the Commission received a request from Fonterra Cooperative Group Ltd for the evaluation by the Authority of the safety and suitability of two products, an infant and follow-on formula, manufactured from a specific protein hydrolysate, the composition of which did not comply with the requirements laid down in point 2.3 of Annex I and in point 2.3 of Annex II to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127.
(4) Upon request from the Commission, the Authority adopted a scientific opinion on 28 November 2024 on the nutritional safety and suitability of that specific protein hydrolysate in infant and follow-on formula(4). In that opinion, the Authority concluded that the specific protein hydrolysate as described in the opinion is a nutritionally safe and a suitable protein source for use in infant and follow-on formula, as long as the formula in which it is used contains a minimum of 0,48 g/100 kJ (2,0 g/100 kcal) protein and complies with the remaining compositional criteria set out in Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127 and with the amino acid pattern contained in Section A of Annex III to that Regulation.
(5) Taking into account the Authority’s conclusions, it is appropriate to allow the placing on the market of infant and follow-on formula manufactured from the specific protein hydrolysate, by adding ‘Protein-related requirements group E’ to the existing compositional requirements for protein hydrolysates set out in Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127.
(6) Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127 should therefore be amended accordingly,
(1) in Annex I, point 2.3 is replaced by the following:‘2.3.Infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesInfant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5.2.3.1.Protein-related requirements group A2.3.1.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,86  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal)2.3.1.2.Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.2.3.1.3.Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps.2.3.1.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).2.3.2.Protein-related requirements group B2.3.2.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,3  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal)2.3.2.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.2.3.2.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process.2.3.2.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).2.3.3.Protein-related requirements group C2.3.3.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,9  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal)2.3.3.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.2.3.3.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process.2.3.3.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).2.3.4.Protein-related requirements group D2.3.4.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,4  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal)2.3.4.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %.2.3.4.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process.2.3.4.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).2.3.5.Protein-related requirements group E2.3.5.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,0  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal)2.3.5.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.2.3.5.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process.2.3.5.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine:cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).’; ‘2.3. Infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesInfant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5. 2.3.1. Protein-related requirements group A 2.3.1.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,86  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,44  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (1,86  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal) 2.3.1.2. Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. (a) 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and (b) 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. 2.3.1.3. Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps. 2.3.1.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal). 2.3.2. Protein-related requirements group B 2.3.2.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,3  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,55  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,3  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal) 2.3.2.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. (a) 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %; (b) 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. 2.3.2.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process. 2.3.2.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal). 2.3.3. Protein-related requirements group C 2.3.3.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,9  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,45  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (1,9  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal) 2.3.3.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %. 2.3.3.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process. 2.3.3.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal). 2.3.4. Protein-related requirements group D 2.3.4.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,4  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,57  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,4  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal) 2.3.4.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %. 2.3.4.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process. 2.3.4.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal). 2.3.5. Protein-related requirements group E 2.3.5.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,0  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,48  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,0  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal) 2.3.5.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %. 2.3.5.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process. 2.3.5.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine:cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).’;
‘2.3. Infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesInfant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5.
2.3.1. Protein-related requirements group A
2.3.1.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,86  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,44  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (1,86  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,44  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(1,86  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.1.2. Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. (a) 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and (b) 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
(a) 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and
(b) 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
2.3.1.3. Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps.
2.3.1.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).
2.3.2. Protein-related requirements group B
2.3.2.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,3  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,55  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,3  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,55  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,3  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.2.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. (a) 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %; (b) 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
(a) 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;
(b) 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
2.3.2.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process.
2.3.2.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).
2.3.3. Protein-related requirements group C
2.3.3.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,9  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,45  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (1,9  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,45  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(1,9  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.3.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.
2.3.3.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process.
2.3.3.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).
2.3.4. Protein-related requirements group D
2.3.4.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,4  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,57  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,4  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,57  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,4  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.4.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %.
2.3.4.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process.
2.3.4.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).
2.3.5. Protein-related requirements group E
2.3.5.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,0  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,48  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,0  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,48  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,0  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.5.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.
2.3.5.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process.
2.3.5.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine:cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).’;
‘2.3. Infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesInfant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5.
2.3.1. Protein-related requirements group A
2.3.1.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,86  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,44  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (1,86  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,44  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(1,86  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,44  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(1,86  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.1.2. Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. (a) 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and (b) 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
(a) 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and
(b) 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
(a) 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and
(b) 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
2.3.1.3. Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps.
2.3.1.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).
2.3.2. Protein-related requirements group B
2.3.2.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,3  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,55  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,3  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,55  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,3  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,55  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,3  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.2.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. (a) 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %; (b) 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
(a) 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;
(b) 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
(a) 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;
(b) 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
2.3.2.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process.
2.3.2.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).
2.3.3. Protein-related requirements group C
2.3.3.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,9  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,45  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (1,9  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,45  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(1,9  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,45  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(1,9  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.3.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.
2.3.3.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process.
2.3.3.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).
2.3.4. Protein-related requirements group D
2.3.4.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,4  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,57  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,4  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,57  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,4  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,57  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,4  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.4.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %.
2.3.4.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process.
2.3.4.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).
2.3.5. Protein-related requirements group E
2.3.5.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,0  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,48  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,0  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,48  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,0  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,48  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,0  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.5.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.
2.3.5.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process.
2.3.5.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine:cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).’;
(2) in Annex II, point 2.3 is replaced by the following:‘2.3.Follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesFollow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5.2.3.1.Protein-related requirements group A2.3.1.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,86  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal)2.3.1.2.Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.2.3.1.3.Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps.2.3.1.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.2.3.2.Protein-related requirements group B2.3.2.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,3  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal)2.3.2.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.2.3.2.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process.2.3.2.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.2.3.3.Protein-related requirements group C2.3.3.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,9  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal)2.3.3.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.2.3.3.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process.2.3.3.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.2.3.4.Protein-related requirements group D2.3.4.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,4  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal)2.3.4.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %.2.3.4.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process.2.3.4.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.2.3.5.Protein-related requirements group E2.3.5.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,0  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal)2.3.5.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.2.3.5.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process.2.3.5.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.’; ‘2.3. Follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesFollow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5. 2.3.1. Protein-related requirements group A 2.3.1.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,86  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,44  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (1,86  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal) 2.3.1.2. Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. (a) 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and (b) 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. 2.3.1.3. Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps. 2.3.1.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together. 2.3.2. Protein-related requirements group B 2.3.2.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,3  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,55  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,3  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal) 2.3.2.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. (a) 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %; (b) 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. 2.3.2.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process. 2.3.2.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together. 2.3.3. Protein-related requirements group C 2.3.3.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,9  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,45  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (1,9  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal) 2.3.3.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %. 2.3.3.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process. 2.3.3.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together. 2.3.4. Protein-related requirements group D 2.3.4.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,4  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,57  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,4  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal) 2.3.4.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %. 2.3.4.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process. 2.3.4.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together. 2.3.5. Protein-related requirements group E 2.3.5.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,0  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,48  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,0  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal) 2.3.5.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %. 2.3.5.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process. 2.3.5.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.’;
‘2.3. Follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesFollow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5.
2.3.1. Protein-related requirements group A
2.3.1.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,86  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,44  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (1,86  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,44  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(1,86  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.1.2. Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. (a) 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and (b) 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
(a) 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and
(b) 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
2.3.1.3. Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps.
2.3.1.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.
2.3.2. Protein-related requirements group B
2.3.2.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,3  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,55  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,3  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,55  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,3  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.2.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. (a) 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %; (b) 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
(a) 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;
(b) 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
2.3.2.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process.
2.3.2.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.
2.3.3. Protein-related requirements group C
2.3.3.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,9  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,45  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (1,9  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,45  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(1,9  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.3.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.
2.3.3.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process.
2.3.3.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.
2.3.4. Protein-related requirements group D
2.3.4.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,4  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,57  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,4  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,57  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,4  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.4.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %.
2.3.4.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process.
2.3.4.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.
2.3.5. Protein-related requirements group E
2.3.5.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,0  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,48  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,0  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,48  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,0  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.5.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.
2.3.5.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process.
2.3.5.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.’;
‘2.3. Follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesFollow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5.
2.3.1. Protein-related requirements group A
2.3.1.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,86  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,44  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (1,86  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,44  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(1,86  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,44  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(1,86  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.1.2. Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. (a) 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and (b) 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
(a) 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and
(b) 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
(a) 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and
(b) 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
2.3.1.3. Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps.
2.3.1.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.
2.3.2. Protein-related requirements group B
2.3.2.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,3  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,55  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,3  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,55  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,3  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,55  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,3  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.2.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. (a) 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %; (b) 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
(a) 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;
(b) 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
(a) 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;
(b) 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
2.3.2.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process.
2.3.2.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.
2.3.3. Protein-related requirements group C
2.3.3.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(1,9  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,45  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (1,9  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,45  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(1,9  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,45  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(1,9  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.3.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.
2.3.3.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process.
2.3.3.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.
2.3.4. Protein-related requirements group D
2.3.4.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,4  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,57  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,4  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,57  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,4  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,57  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,4  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.4.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %.
2.3.4.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process.
2.3.4.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.
2.3.5. Protein-related requirements group E
2.3.5.1. Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48  g/100  kJ0,67  g/100  kJ(2,0  g/100  kcal)(2,8  g/100  kcal) Minimum Maximum 0,48  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ (2,0  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,48  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,0  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
Minimum Maximum
0,48  g/100  kJ 0,67  g/100  kJ
(2,0  g/100  kcal) (2,8  g/100  kcal)
2.3.5.2. Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.
2.3.5.3. Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process.
2.3.5.4. Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.’;
(3) in Annex III, the introductory sentence under Section A is replaced by the following:‘For the purposes of points 2.1, 2.2, 2.3.2, 2.3.3, 2.3.4 and 2.3.5 of Annexes I and II, the indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids in breast milk, expressed in mg per 100 kJ and 100 kcal, are the following:’.
THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) No 609/2013 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 12 June 2013 on food intended for infants and young children, food for special medical purposes and total diet replacement for weight control and repealing Council Directive 92/52/EEC, Commission Directives 96/8/EC, 1999/21/EC, 2006/125/EC and 2006/141/EC, Directive 2009/39/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council and Commission Regulations (EC) No 41/2009 and (EC) No 953/2009(1), and in particular Article 11(2) thereof,
(1) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127(2)lays down specific compositional requirements for infant and follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates. It provides that infant and follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates are to comply with the requirements for protein content, protein source, protein processing, as well as with the requirements for indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitine as set out in point 2.3 of Annex I and in point 2.3 of Annex II to that Regulation.
(2) In its opinion of 24 July 2014 on the essential composition of infant and follow-on formulae(3), the European Food Safety Authority (‘the Authority’) noted that the safety and suitability of each specific formula containing protein hydrolysates has to be established by clinical evaluation in the target population. So far, the Authority has positively evaluated four protein hydrolysates used in infant and follow-on formulae. The composition of those four protein hydrolysates is included in the requirements currently set out in Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127. However, those requirements may be updated in order to allow the placing on the market of a formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates with a different composition from those already positively assessed, following their evaluation by the Authority of their safety and suitability.
(3) On 3 June 2021, the Commission received a request from Fonterra Cooperative Group Ltd for the evaluation by the Authority of the safety and suitability of two products, an infant and follow-on formula, manufactured from a specific protein hydrolysate, the composition of which did not comply with the requirements laid down in point 2.3 of Annex I and in point 2.3 of Annex II to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127.
(4) Upon request from the Commission, the Authority adopted a scientific opinion on 28 November 2024 on the nutritional safety and suitability of that specific protein hydrolysate in infant and follow-on formula(4). In that opinion, the Authority concluded that the specific protein hydrolysate as described in the opinion is a nutritionally safe and a suitable protein source for use in infant and follow-on formula, as long as the formula in which it is used contains a minimum of 0,48 g/100 kJ (2,0 g/100 kcal) protein and complies with the remaining compositional criteria set out in Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127 and with the amino acid pattern contained in Section A of Annex III to that Regulation.
(5) Taking into account the Authority’s conclusions, it is appropriate to allow the placing on the market of infant and follow-on formula manufactured from the specific protein hydrolysate, by adding ‘Protein-related requirements group E’ to the existing compositional requirements for protein hydrolysates set out in Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127.
(6) Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127 should therefore be amended accordingly,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Article 1
Annexes I, II and III to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127 are amended in accordance with the Annex to this Regulation.

Article 2
This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) No 609/2013 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 12 June 2013 on food intended for infants and young children, food for special medical purposes and total diet replacement for weight control and repealing Council Directive 92/52/EEC, Commission Directives 96/8/EC, 1999/21/EC, 2006/125/EC and 2006/141/EC, Directive 2009/39/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council and Commission Regulations (EC) No 41/2009 and (EC) No 953/2009(1), and in particular Article 11(2) thereof,
(1) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127(2)lays down specific compositional requirements for infant and follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates. It provides that infant and follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates are to comply with the requirements for protein content, protein source, protein processing, as well as with the requirements for indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitine as set out in point 2.3 of Annex I and in point 2.3 of Annex II to that Regulation.
(2) In its opinion of 24 July 2014 on the essential composition of infant and follow-on formulae(3), the European Food Safety Authority (‘the Authority’) noted that the safety and suitability of each specific formula containing protein hydrolysates has to be established by clinical evaluation in the target population. So far, the Authority has positively evaluated four protein hydrolysates used in infant and follow-on formulae. The composition of those four protein hydrolysates is included in the requirements currently set out in Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127. However, those requirements may be updated in order to allow the placing on the market of a formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates with a different composition from those already positively assessed, following their evaluation by the Authority of their safety and suitability.
(3) On 3 June 2021, the Commission received a request from Fonterra Cooperative Group Ltd for the evaluation by the Authority of the safety and suitability of two products, an infant and follow-on formula, manufactured from a specific protein hydrolysate, the composition of which did not comply with the requirements laid down in point 2.3 of Annex I and in point 2.3 of Annex II to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127.
(4) Upon request from the Commission, the Authority adopted a scientific opinion on 28 November 2024 on the nutritional safety and suitability of that specific protein hydrolysate in infant and follow-on formula(4). In that opinion, the Authority concluded that the specific protein hydrolysate as described in the opinion is a nutritionally safe and a suitable protein source for use in infant and follow-on formula, as long as the formula in which it is used contains a minimum of 0,48 g/100 kJ (2,0 g/100 kcal) protein and complies with the remaining compositional criteria set out in Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127 and with the amino acid pattern contained in Section A of Annex III to that Regulation.
(5) Taking into account the Authority’s conclusions, it is appropriate to allow the placing on the market of infant and follow-on formula manufactured from the specific protein hydrolysate, by adding ‘Protein-related requirements group E’ to the existing compositional requirements for protein hydrolysates set out in Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127.
(6) Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127 should therefore be amended accordingly,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:
Annexes I, II and III to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127 are amended in accordance with the Annex to this Regulation.
This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.
ANNEXAnnexes I, II and III to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/127 are amended as follows:

(1) | in Annex I, point 2.3 is replaced by the following:‘2.3.Infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesInfant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5.2.3.1.Protein-related requirements group A2.3.1.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(1,86 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal)2.3.1.2.Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.2.3.1.3.Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps.2.3.1.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).2.3.2.Protein-related requirements group B2.3.2.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,3 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal)2.3.2.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.2.3.2.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process.2.3.2.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).2.3.3.Protein-related requirements group C2.3.3.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(1,9 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal)2.3.3.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.2.3.3.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process.2.3.3.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).2.3.4.Protein-related requirements group D2.3.4.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,4 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal)2.3.4.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %.2.3.4.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process.2.3.4.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).2.3.5.Protein-related requirements group E2.3.5.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,0 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal)2.3.5.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.2.3.5.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process.2.3.5.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine:cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).’; | ‘2.3. | Infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesInfant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5. | 2.3.1. | Protein-related requirements group A | 2.3.1.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(1,86 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,44 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (1,86 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal) | 2.3.1.2. | Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. | (a) | 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and | (b) | 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. | 2.3.1.3. | Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps. | 2.3.1.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal). | 2.3.2. | Protein-related requirements group B | 2.3.2.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,3 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,55 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (2,3 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal) | 2.3.2.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. | (a) | 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %; | (b) | 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. | 2.3.2.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process. | 2.3.2.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal). | 2.3.3. | Protein-related requirements group C | 2.3.3.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(1,9 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,45 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (1,9 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal) | 2.3.3.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %. | 2.3.3.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process. | 2.3.3.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal). | 2.3.4. | Protein-related requirements group D | 2.3.4.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,4 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,57 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (2,4 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal) | 2.3.4.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %. | 2.3.4.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process. | 2.3.4.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal). | 2.3.5. | Protein-related requirements group E | 2.3.5.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,0 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,48 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (2,0 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal) | 2.3.5.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %. | 2.3.5.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process. | 2.3.5.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine:cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).’;
‘2.3. | Infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesInfant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5.
2.3.1. | Protein-related requirements group A
2.3.1.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(1,86 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,44 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (1,86 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
Minimum | Maximum
0,44 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ
(1,86 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
2.3.1.2. | Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. | (a) | 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and | (b) | 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
(a) | 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and
(b) | 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
2.3.1.3. | Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps.
2.3.1.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).
2.3.2. | Protein-related requirements group B
2.3.2.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,3 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,55 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (2,3 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
Minimum | Maximum
0,55 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ
(2,3 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
2.3.2.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. | (a) | 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %; | (b) | 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
(a) | 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;
(b) | 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
2.3.2.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process.
2.3.2.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).
2.3.3. | Protein-related requirements group C
2.3.3.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(1,9 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,45 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (1,9 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
Minimum | Maximum
0,45 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ
(1,9 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
2.3.3.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.
2.3.3.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process.
2.3.3.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).
2.3.4. | Protein-related requirements group D
2.3.4.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,4 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,57 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (2,4 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
Minimum | Maximum
0,57 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ
(2,4 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
2.3.4.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %.
2.3.4.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process.
2.3.4.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine: cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).
2.3.5. | Protein-related requirements group E
2.3.5.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,0 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,48 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (2,0 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
Minimum | Maximum
0,48 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ
(2,0 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
2.3.5.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.
2.3.5.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process.
2.3.5.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids and L-carnitineFor an equal energy value, infant formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine may be added together if the methionine:cysteine ratio is not greater than 2, and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together if the tyrosine: phenylalanine ratio is not greater than 2. The ratio of methionine: cysteine and of tyrosine: phenylalanine may be greater than 2, provided that the suitability of the product concerned for infants is demonstrated in accordance with Article 3(3).The L-carnitine content shall be at least equal to 0,3 mg/100 kJ (1,2 mg/100 kcal).’;
(2) | in Annex II, point 2.3 is replaced by the following:‘2.3.Follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesFollow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5.2.3.1.Protein-related requirements group A2.3.1.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(1,86 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal)2.3.1.2.Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.2.3.1.3.Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps.2.3.1.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.2.3.2.Protein-related requirements group B2.3.2.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,3 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal)2.3.2.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.2.3.2.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process.2.3.2.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.2.3.3.Protein-related requirements group C2.3.3.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(1,9 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal)2.3.3.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.2.3.3.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process.2.3.3.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.2.3.4.Protein-related requirements group D2.3.4.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,4 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal)2.3.4.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %.2.3.4.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process.2.3.4.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.2.3.5.Protein-related requirements group E2.3.5.1.Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,0 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal)2.3.5.2.Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.2.3.5.3.Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process.2.3.5.4.Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.’; | ‘2.3. | Follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesFollow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5. | 2.3.1. | Protein-related requirements group A | 2.3.1.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(1,86 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,44 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (1,86 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal) | 2.3.1.2. | Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. | (a) | 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and | (b) | 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. | 2.3.1.3. | Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps. | 2.3.1.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together. | 2.3.2. | Protein-related requirements group B | 2.3.2.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,3 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,55 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (2,3 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal) | 2.3.2.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. | (a) | 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %; | (b) | 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. | 2.3.2.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process. | 2.3.2.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together. | 2.3.3. | Protein-related requirements group C | 2.3.3.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(1,9 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,45 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (1,9 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal) | 2.3.3.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %. | 2.3.3.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process. | 2.3.3.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together. | 2.3.4. | Protein-related requirements group D | 2.3.4.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,4 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,57 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (2,4 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal) | 2.3.4.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %. | 2.3.4.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process. | 2.3.4.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together. | 2.3.5. | Protein-related requirements group E | 2.3.5.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,0 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,48 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (2,0 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal) | 2.3.5.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %. | 2.3.5.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process. | 2.3.5.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.’;
‘2.3. | Follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysatesFollow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates shall comply with the protein-related requirements provided under point 2.3.1, point 2.3.2, point 2.3.3, point 2.3.4 or point 2.3.5.
2.3.1. | Protein-related requirements group A
2.3.1.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,44 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(1,86 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,44 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (1,86 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
Minimum | Maximum
0,44 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ
(1,86 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
2.3.1.2. | Protein sourceDemineralised sweet whey protein derived from cows’ milk after enzymatic precipitation of caseins using chymosin, consisting of:(a)63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and(b)37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %. | (a) | 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and | (b) | 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
(a) | 63 % caseino-glycomacropeptide free whey protein isolate with a minimum protein content of 95 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3 %; and
(b) | 37 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 87 % of dry matter and protein denaturation of less than 70 % and a maximum ash content of 3,5 %.
2.3.1.3. | Protein processingTwo-stage hydrolysis process using a trypsin preparation with a heat-treatment step (from 3 to 10 minutes at 80 to 100 °C) between the two hydrolysis steps.
2.3.1.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section B of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.
2.3.2. | Protein-related requirements group B
2.3.2.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,55 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,3 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,55 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (2,3 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
Minimum | Maximum
0,55 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ
(2,3 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
2.3.2.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of:(a)77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;(b)23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %. | (a) | 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %; | (b) | 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
(a) | 77 % acid whey, coming from whey protein concentrate with a protein content of 35 to 80 %;
(b) | 23 % sweet whey, coming from demineralised sweet whey with a minimum protein content of 12,5 %.
2.3.2.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,5 to 8,5 and a temperature of 55 to 70 °C with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a protease/peptidase complex. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 120 to 150 °C) during the production process.
2.3.2.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.
2.3.3. | Protein-related requirements group C
2.3.3.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,45 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(1,9 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,45 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (1,9 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
Minimum | Maximum
0,45 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ
(1,9 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
2.3.3.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cows’ milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.
2.3.3.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Prior to the hydrolysis, the pH is adjusted to 6,5–7,5 at a temperature of 50–65 °C. The hydrolysis is carried out with the use of an enzyme mixture of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated in a heat treatment step (from 2 to 10 seconds at 110 to 140 °C) during the production process.
2.3.3.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.
2.3.4. | Protein-related requirements group D
2.3.4.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,57 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,4 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,57 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (2,4 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
Minimum | Maximum
0,57 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ
(2,4 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
2.3.4.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % sweet whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 70 %.
2.3.4.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the hydrolysis is carried out at a pH of 7,0 to 8,0 and a temperature of 50 to 60 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of a serine endopeptidase and a metalloprotease. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 100 to 120 °C for at least 30 seconds) during the production process.
2.3.4.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.
2.3.5. | Protein-related requirements group E
2.3.5.1. | Protein contentMinimumMaximum0,48 g/100 kJ0,67 g/100 kJ(2,0 g/100 kcal)(2,8 g/100 kcal) | Minimum | Maximum | 0,48 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ | (2,0 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
Minimum | Maximum
0,48 g/100 kJ | 0,67 g/100 kJ
(2,0 g/100 kcal) | (2,8 g/100 kcal)
2.3.5.2. | Protein sourceWhey protein derived from cow’s milk, consisting of 100 % whey protein concentrate with a minimum protein content of 80 %.
2.3.5.3. | Protein processingThe source material is hydrated and heated. Following the heat-treatment step, the pH is adjusted to 7 to 8, at a temperature of 50 to 70 °C, using a two-stage hydrolysis process with the use of serine endopeptidases. The food enzymes are inactivated by heat treatment (at 80 to 90 °C for 25 to 35 minutes) during the production process.
2.3.5.4. | Indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acidsFor an equal energy value, follow-on formula manufactured from protein hydrolysates must contain an available quantity of each indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acid at least equal to that contained in the reference protein as set out in Section A of Annex III. Nevertheless, for calculation purposes, the concentration of methionine and cysteine and the concentration of phenylalanine and tyrosine may be added together.’;
(3) | in Annex III, the introductory sentence under Section A is replaced by the following:‘For the purposes of points 2.1, 2.2, 2.3.2, 2.3.3, 2.3.4 and 2.3.5 of Annexes I and II, the indispensable and conditionally indispensable amino acids in breast milk, expressed in mg per 100 kJ and 100 kcal, are the following:’.

Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2025/2004 of 6 October 2025 amending Regulation (EU) 2023/2833 of the European Parliament and of the Council as regards derogations on reporting of intra-EU trade and certain tagging information, and the determination of weight of individual bluefin tuna

Official Journalof the European Union ENL series
2025/2004 12.12.2025
(1) The Union is party to the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas (ICCAT), having approved the accession to the ICCAT Convention pursuant to Council Decision 86/238/EEC(2).
(2) ICCAT adopts measures to ensure the long-term conservation and sustainable use of the fishery resources in the ICCAT Convention area and to safeguard the marine ecosystems in which these resources occur. Such measures are binding upon the Union.
(3) Since the adoption of Regulation (EU) 2023/2833, ICCAT has adopted, at its 2024 annual meeting, recommendation 24-16(3)in relation to the application of the electronic bluefin tuna catch documentation programme. ICCAT recommendation 24-16 includes provisions which make specific derogations on reporting of intra-EU trade and certain tagging information permanent, in light of the excessive administrative burden and the differences of treatment these validation requirements create.
(4) Moreover, ICCAT recommendation 24-16 brings the manner in which the approximate weight of individual fish within the catch upon offloading is determined within the Union in line with the current practices, given that all landed fish are weighed, and sampling is not necessary to determine the average weight of the landed bluefin tuna individuals.
(5) Those measures should be implemented into Union law. Therefore Regulation (EU) 2023/2833 should be amended accordingly.
(6) As the provisions provided for in this Regulation have a direct impact on the planning of the fishing season of Union vessels and on related economic activities, this Regulation should enter into force as soon as possible,
(1) Article 5(4) is replaced by the following:‘4.   Member States shall report annually to the Commission on the implementation of that derogation. That report shall include information on the verification by the Member States provided for in Article 9, the outcomes of that verification and data about the trade events concerned, including relevant statistical information, such as the amount of bluefin tuna and number of trades covered by that derogation.’;
(2) Article 6(5) is replaced by the following:‘5.   By way of derogation from paragraph 4, point (b) (v), of this Article, for those fisheries subject to the derogations as to minimum conservation reference size under Regulation (EU) 2023/2053, Member States may instead provide the approximate weight of individual fish within the catch upon offloading, which shall be determined by averaging the total landing weight over the number of individual fish.’.
THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2023/2833 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 13 December 2023 establishing a catch documentation programme for bluefin tuna (Thunnus thynnus) and repealing Regulation (EU) No 640/2010(1), and in particular Article 14(1)(e) thereof,
(1) The Union is party to the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas (ICCAT), having approved the accession to the ICCAT Convention pursuant to Council Decision 86/238/EEC(2).
(2) ICCAT adopts measures to ensure the long-term conservation and sustainable use of the fishery resources in the ICCAT Convention area and to safeguard the marine ecosystems in which these resources occur. Such measures are binding upon the Union.
(3) Since the adoption of Regulation (EU) 2023/2833, ICCAT has adopted, at its 2024 annual meeting, recommendation 24-16(3)in relation to the application of the electronic bluefin tuna catch documentation programme. ICCAT recommendation 24-16 includes provisions which make specific derogations on reporting of intra-EU trade and certain tagging information permanent, in light of the excessive administrative burden and the differences of treatment these validation requirements create.
(4) Moreover, ICCAT recommendation 24-16 brings the manner in which the approximate weight of individual fish within the catch upon offloading is determined within the Union in line with the current practices, given that all landed fish are weighed, and sampling is not necessary to determine the average weight of the landed bluefin tuna individuals.
(5) Those measures should be implemented into Union law. Therefore Regulation (EU) 2023/2833 should be amended accordingly.
(6) As the provisions provided for in this Regulation have a direct impact on the planning of the fishing season of Union vessels and on related economic activities, this Regulation should enter into force as soon as possible,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Amendment of Regulation (EU) 2023/2833
Article 1
Regulation (EU) 2023/2833 is amended as follows:
(1)
Article 5(4) is replaced by the following:
‘4. Member States shall report annually to the Commission on the implementation of that derogation. That report shall include information on the verification by the Member States provided for in Article 9, the outcomes of that verification and data about the trade events concerned, including relevant statistical information, such as the amount of bluefin tuna and number of trades covered by that derogation.’
(2)
Article 6(5) is replaced by the following:
‘5. By way of derogation from paragraph 4, point (b) (v), of this Article, for those fisheries subject to the derogations as to minimum conservation reference size under Regulation (EU) 2023/2053, Member States may instead provide the approximate weight of individual fish within the catch upon offloading, which shall be determined by averaging the total landing weight over the number of individual fish.’

Article 2
This Regulation shall enter into force on the day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2023/2833 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 13 December 2023 establishing a catch documentation programme for bluefin tuna (Thunnus thynnus) and repealing Regulation (EU) No 640/2010(1), and in particular Article 14(1)(e) thereof,
(1) The Union is party to the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas (ICCAT), having approved the accession to the ICCAT Convention pursuant to Council Decision 86/238/EEC(2).
(2) ICCAT adopts measures to ensure the long-term conservation and sustainable use of the fishery resources in the ICCAT Convention area and to safeguard the marine ecosystems in which these resources occur. Such measures are binding upon the Union.
(3) Since the adoption of Regulation (EU) 2023/2833, ICCAT has adopted, at its 2024 annual meeting, recommendation 24-16(3)in relation to the application of the electronic bluefin tuna catch documentation programme. ICCAT recommendation 24-16 includes provisions which make specific derogations on reporting of intra-EU trade and certain tagging information permanent, in light of the excessive administrative burden and the differences of treatment these validation requirements create.
(4) Moreover, ICCAT recommendation 24-16 brings the manner in which the approximate weight of individual fish within the catch upon offloading is determined within the Union in line with the current practices, given that all landed fish are weighed, and sampling is not necessary to determine the average weight of the landed bluefin tuna individuals.
(5) Those measures should be implemented into Union law. Therefore Regulation (EU) 2023/2833 should be amended accordingly.
(6) As the provisions provided for in this Regulation have a direct impact on the planning of the fishing season of Union vessels and on related economic activities, this Regulation should enter into force as soon as possible,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Amendment of Regulation (EU) 2023/2833

Regulation (EU) 2023/2833 is amended as follows:
(1)
Article 5(4) is replaced by the following:
‘4. Member States shall report annually to the Commission on the implementation of that derogation. That report shall include information on the verification by the Member States provided for in Article 9, the outcomes of that verification and data about the trade events concerned, including relevant statistical information, such as the amount of bluefin tuna and number of trades covered by that derogation.’
(2)
Article 6(5) is replaced by the following:
‘5. By way of derogation from paragraph 4, point (b) (v), of this Article, for those fisheries subject to the derogations as to minimum conservation reference size under Regulation (EU) 2023/2053, Member States may instead provide the approximate weight of individual fish within the catch upon offloading, which shall be determined by averaging the total landing weight over the number of individual fish.’
This Regulation shall enter into force on the day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.

Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2025/2002 of 6 October 2025 amending Regulation (EU) 2017/2107 of the European Parliament and of the Council as regards the number of fish aggregating devices permitted in the Convention area of the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas

Official Journalof the European Union ENL series
2025/2002 12.12.2025
(1) The Union is party to the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas (ICCAT), having approved the accession to the ICCAT Convention pursuant to Council Decision 86/238/EEC(2).
(2) ICCAT adopts measures to ensure the long-term conservation and sustainable use of the fishery resources in the ICCAT Convention area and to safeguard the marine ecosystems in which these resources occur. Such measures are binding upon the Union.
(3) Since the adoption of Regulation (EU) 2017/2107, ICCAT has adopted, at its 2024 annual meeting, recommendation 24-01(3)on a multi-annual conservation and management programme for tropical tunas. ICCAT recommendation 24-01 includes a provision reducing the number of fish aggregating devices (FADs) per vessel from 300 to 288 as of 1 January 2026.
(4) That measure should be implemented into Union law. Therefore, Regulation (EU) 2017/2107 should be amended accordingly.
(5) As the provisions provided for in this Regulation have a direct impact on the planning of the fishing season of Union vessels and on related economic activities, this Regulation should enter into force as soon as possible,
THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2017/2107 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 November 2017 laying down management, conservation and control measures applicable in the Convention area of the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas (ICCAT), and amending Council Regulations (EC) No 1936/2001, (EC) No 1984/2003 and (EC) No 520/2007(1), and in particular Article 73(1)(i) thereof,
(1) The Union is party to the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas (ICCAT), having approved the accession to the ICCAT Convention pursuant to Council Decision 86/238/EEC(2).
(2) ICCAT adopts measures to ensure the long-term conservation and sustainable use of the fishery resources in the ICCAT Convention area and to safeguard the marine ecosystems in which these resources occur. Such measures are binding upon the Union.
(3) Since the adoption of Regulation (EU) 2017/2107, ICCAT has adopted, at its 2024 annual meeting, recommendation 24-01(3)on a multi-annual conservation and management programme for tropical tunas. ICCAT recommendation 24-01 includes a provision reducing the number of fish aggregating devices (FADs) per vessel from 300 to 288 as of 1 January 2026.
(4) That measure should be implemented into Union law. Therefore, Regulation (EU) 2017/2107 should be amended accordingly.
(5) As the provisions provided for in this Regulation have a direct impact on the planning of the fishing season of Union vessels and on related economic activities, this Regulation should enter into force as soon as possible,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Amendment of Regulation (EU) 2017/2107
Article 1
Article 9(4) of Regulation (EU) 2017/2107 is replaced by the following:
‘4. As of 1 January 2026, Member States shall ensure that no more than 288 FADs per vessel with operational buoys are active at the same time.’.

Entry into force
Article 2
This Regulation shall enter into force on the day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2017/2107 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 November 2017 laying down management, conservation and control measures applicable in the Convention area of the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas (ICCAT), and amending Council Regulations (EC) No 1936/2001, (EC) No 1984/2003 and (EC) No 520/2007(1), and in particular Article 73(1)(i) thereof,
(1) The Union is party to the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas (ICCAT), having approved the accession to the ICCAT Convention pursuant to Council Decision 86/238/EEC(2).
(2) ICCAT adopts measures to ensure the long-term conservation and sustainable use of the fishery resources in the ICCAT Convention area and to safeguard the marine ecosystems in which these resources occur. Such measures are binding upon the Union.
(3) Since the adoption of Regulation (EU) 2017/2107, ICCAT has adopted, at its 2024 annual meeting, recommendation 24-01(3)on a multi-annual conservation and management programme for tropical tunas. ICCAT recommendation 24-01 includes a provision reducing the number of fish aggregating devices (FADs) per vessel from 300 to 288 as of 1 January 2026.
(4) That measure should be implemented into Union law. Therefore, Regulation (EU) 2017/2107 should be amended accordingly.
(5) As the provisions provided for in this Regulation have a direct impact on the planning of the fishing season of Union vessels and on related economic activities, this Regulation should enter into force as soon as possible,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Amendment of Regulation (EU) 2017/2107

Article 9(4) of Regulation (EU) 2017/2107 is replaced by the following:
‘4. As of 1 January 2026, Member States shall ensure that no more than 288 FADs per vessel with operational buoys are active at the same time.’.

Entry into force

This Regulation shall enter into force on the day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.

Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1953 of 29 September 2025 amending Annexes VII, VIII, XI and XIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 as regards measures against the entry into, and the presence in the Union territory of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) and Anoplophora chinensis (Forster)

Official Journalof the European Union ENL series
2025/1953 3.12.2025
(1) Regulation (EU) 2016/2031 and Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072(2)replaced the provisions of Council Directive 2000/29/EC(3)concerning protective measures against organisms harmful to plants. They have updated and elaborated further the respective rules on protective measures against pests of plants.
(2) More specifically, Annex VII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 establishes a list of plants, plant products and other objects, originating from third countries, and the corresponding special requirements for their introduction into the Union territory. Annex VIII to that Regulation sets out a list of plants, plant products and other objects, originating in the Union territory and the corresponding special requirements for their movement within the Union territory. Annex XI to that Regulation sets out a list of plants, plant products and other objects subject to phytosanitary certificates and those for which such certificates are not required for their introduction into the Union territory. Annex XIII to that Regulation lists the plants, plant products and other objects for which a plant passport is required for their movement within the Union territory.
(3) Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(4)establishes measures to prevent the introduction into, establishment and spread within the Union territory ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster). It includes requirements concerning the introduction into, and movement within, the Union of certain plants and plant products.
(4) Commission Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893(5)establishes measures to prevent the introduction into and the spread within the Union ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky). It was repealed by Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952(6)establishing measures concerning the eradication ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) from the Union territory.
(5) The application of most of the measures established under Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095 and Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 have proved effective in reducing the risk of those pests to an acceptable level.
(6) It is appropriate, for reasons of consistency and legal certainty, to include those measures, where necessary in an updated form, in Annexes VII, VIII, XI and XIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 as requirements concerning the introduction into, and movement within the Union, of plants, plant products and other objects that can hostAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) orAnoplophora chinensis(Forster).
(7) In this view, new entries, in relation toAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) andAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), should be added to Annex VII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 concerning plants for planting and wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap of certain species, wood of certain species other than that form, and wood packaging material of certain species.
(8) Based on findings ofAnoplophora chinensisin the Union, the scope of the host plants of that pest should be extended to cover not onlyAesculus hippocastanum, but allAesculusspecies.
(9) However, based on the experience in the Union, the scope of the host plants ofAnoplophora glabripennisshould be reduced to species on which findings or symptoms of that pest have been found.
(10) In order to ensure a proportionate approach to the respective phytosanitary risk and to guarantee legal clarity, the special requirements of Annex VII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 related to the plants, plant products and other objects that can hostAnoplophora glabripennisshould only be applicable to those third countries, where that pest is known to be present. Those countries should be listed in Annex VII.
(11) Article 10(1) of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095, as well as Annex II, 2.A.(1)(c) of Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 require that prior to the movement of the specified plants within the Union, the plants have been grown in a site where, inter alia, targeted destructive sampling is carried out on each lot of specified plants. According to these provisions, that targeted destructive sampling is to be carried out at specific levels set out in those legal acts.
(12) Experience has shown during the application of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095, and during the application of Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893, that the established levels of destructive sampling of specified plants are disproportionately high, because they lead to the destruction of an unnecessarily large number of plants, without correspondingly increasing the confidence level of the sampling.
(13) For that reason, those requirements on destructive sampling should be removed, as it is sufficient to require that the respective sampling scheme used for inspection is to be able to identify with at least 99 % confidence level, a presence level of infested plants of 1 %.
(14) The CN codes listed in Annex VII and Annex XI to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 should be amended to reflect the most recent amendment of Council Regulation (EEC) No 2658/87(7).
(15) Moreover, new entries should be added in Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 concerning plants, wood and wood packaging material of certain species, which have spent some time in a demarcated area for containment, established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 and to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095. This is necessary to ensure that the movement of those commodities from areas where that pest is established to the rest of the Union does not present an unacceptable phytosanitary risk.
(16) In Annex XI to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, Part A, in point 3, the reference to ‘AlnusL.,CarpinusL.,CercidiphyllumSiebold & Zucc.,CorylusL.,FagusL.,Koelreuteria Laxm.,PlatanusL.,Tiliaspp.’ should be excluded, because it has been proven that these species are not the preferred hosts ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) and therefore present lower phytosanitary risk.
(17) Certain types of wood should also be added to the list contained in Annex XIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, because a plant passport is needed for their movement within the Union, thereby attesting compliance with the respective special requirements set out in Annex VIII to that Regulation.
(18) Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 should therefore be amended accordingly.
(19) The measures provided for in this Regulation are in accordance with the opinion of the Standing Committee on Plants, Animals, Food and Feed,
1. Annex VII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 is amended as follows:(a)the following points 32.8 and 32.9 are inserted after point 32.7:‘32.8Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %.32.9Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosumex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99All third countriesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %.(b)the following points 114 and 115 are added:‘114.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surfaceex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.115.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ (a) the following points 32.8 and 32.9 are inserted after point 32.7:‘32.8Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %.32.9Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosumex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99All third countriesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. ‘32.8 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99 China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. (a) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (c) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv). 32.9 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99 All third countries Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. (a) originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or (b) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or (c) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (d) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv). (b) the following points 114 and 115 are added:‘114.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surfaceex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.115.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ ‘114. Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface — chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants, — wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface ex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. (a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. 115. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ (a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or (c) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
(a) the following points 32.8 and 32.9 are inserted after point 32.7:‘32.8Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %.32.9Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosumex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99All third countriesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. ‘32.8 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99 China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. (a) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (c) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv). 32.9 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99 All third countries Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. (a) originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or (b) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or (c) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (d) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).
‘32.8 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99 China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. (a) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (c) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).
(a) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);
(ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;
(iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or
— with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
(iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(c) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).
32.9 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99 All third countries Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. (a) originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or (b) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or (c) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (d) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).
(a) originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or
(b) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or
(c) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;
(ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;
(iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or
— with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
(iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(d) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).
(b) the following points 114 and 115 are added:‘114.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surfaceex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.115.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ ‘114. Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface — chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants, — wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface ex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. (a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. 115. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ (a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or (c) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
‘114. Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface — chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants, — wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface ex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. (a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
— chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,
— wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface
(a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
115. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ (a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or (c) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
(a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or
(c) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
(a) the following points 32.8 and 32.9 are inserted after point 32.7:‘32.8Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %.32.9Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosumex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99All third countriesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. ‘32.8 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99 China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. (a) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (c) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv). 32.9 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99 All third countries Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. (a) originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or (b) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or (c) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (d) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).
‘32.8 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99 China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. (a) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (c) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).
(a) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);
(ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;
(iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or
— with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
(iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(c) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).
32.9 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99 All third countries Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. (a) originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or (b) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or (c) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (d) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).
(a) originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or
(b) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or
(c) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;
(ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;
(iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or
— with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
(iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(d) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).
‘32.8 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99 China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. (a) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (c) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).
(a) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);
(ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;
(iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or
— with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
(iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(c) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).
32.9 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99 All third countries Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. (a) originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or (b) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or (c) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (d) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).
(a) originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or
(b) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or
(c) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;
(ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;
(iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or
— with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
(iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(d) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).
(a) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);
(ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;
(iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or
— with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
(iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(i) established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);
(ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;
(iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or
— with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or
— with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
(iv) where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(c) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).
(a) originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or
(b) originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or
(c) have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or (i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; (ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; (iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and (iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;
(ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;
(iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or
— with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
(iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(i) established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;
(ii) subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;
(iii) where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and — with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or — with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or
— with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or
— with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
(iv) where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(d) have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).
(b) the following points 114 and 115 are added:‘114.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surfaceex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.115.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ ‘114. Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface — chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants, — wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface ex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. (a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. 115. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ (a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or (c) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
‘114. Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface — chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants, — wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface ex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. (a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
— chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,
— wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface
(a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
115. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ (a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or (c) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
(a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or
(c) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
‘114. Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface — chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants, — wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface ex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. (a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
— chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,
— wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface
(a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
115. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ (a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or (b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or (c) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
(a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or
(c) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
— chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,
— wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface
(a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
(a) originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or
(c) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
2. Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 is amended as follows:(a)the following points 17.2 and 17.3 are inserted after point 17.1:‘17.2Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point.17.3Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point.(b)the following points 30 to 32 are added:‘30.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface.Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.31.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.32.Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ (a) the following points 17.2 and 17.3 are inserted after point 17.1:‘17.2Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point.17.3Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. ‘17.2 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an area Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. (a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and (b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: (iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. 17.3 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an area Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. (a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and (b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and (iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. (b) the following points 30 to 32 are added:‘30.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface.Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.31.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.32.Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ ‘30. Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. — chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants; — wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. (a) is debarked; and (b) has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. 31. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. (a) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or (b) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. 32. Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ (a) is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and (b) displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
(a) the following points 17.2 and 17.3 are inserted after point 17.1:‘17.2Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point.17.3Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. ‘17.2 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an area Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. (a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and (b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: (iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. 17.3 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an area Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. (a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and (b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and (iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
‘17.2 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an area Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. (a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and (b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: (iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
(a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and
(b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: (iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
(i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or
(ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:
(iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
— preventive treatments have been applied, or
— targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
17.3 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an area Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. (a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and (b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and (iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and
(b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and (iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or
(ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and
(iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
— where preventive treatments have been applied, or
— where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(b) the following points 30 to 32 are added:‘30.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface.Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.31.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.32.Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ ‘30. Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. — chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants; — wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. (a) is debarked; and (b) has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. 31. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. (a) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or (b) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. 32. Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ (a) is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and (b) displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
‘30. Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. — chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants; — wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. (a) is debarked; and (b) has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
— chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;
— wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface.
(a) is debarked; and
(b) has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
31. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. (a) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or (b) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.
(a) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or
(b) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.
32. Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ (a) is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and (b) displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
(a) is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and
(b) displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
(a) the following points 17.2 and 17.3 are inserted after point 17.1:‘17.2Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point.17.3Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. ‘17.2 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an area Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. (a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and (b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: (iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. 17.3 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an area Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. (a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and (b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and (iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
‘17.2 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an area Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. (a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and (b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: (iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
(a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and
(b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: (iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
(i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or
(ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:
(iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
— preventive treatments have been applied, or
— targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
17.3 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an area Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. (a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and (b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and (iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and
(b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and (iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or
(ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and
(iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
— where preventive treatments have been applied, or
— where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
‘17.2 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an area Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. (a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and (b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: (iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
(a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and
(b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: (iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
(i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or
(ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:
(iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
— preventive treatments have been applied, or
— targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
17.3 Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an area Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. (a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and (b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and (iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and
(b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and (iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or
(ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and
(iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
— where preventive treatments have been applied, or
— where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and
(b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: (iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
(i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or
(ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:
(iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
— preventive treatments have been applied, or
— targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
(i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or
(ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:
(iii) —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. — preventive treatments have been applied, or — targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
— preventive treatments have been applied, or
— targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
— preventive treatments have been applied, or
— targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
(a) it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and
(b) where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. (i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or (ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and (iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or
(ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and
(iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
— where preventive treatments have been applied, or
— where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(i) with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or
(ii) where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and
(iii) —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. — where preventive treatments have been applied, or — where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
— where preventive treatments have been applied, or
— where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
— where preventive treatments have been applied, or
— where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(b) the following points 30 to 32 are added:‘30.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface.Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.31.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.32.Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ ‘30. Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. — chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants; — wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. (a) is debarked; and (b) has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. 31. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. (a) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or (b) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. 32. Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ (a) is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and (b) displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
‘30. Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. — chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants; — wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. (a) is debarked; and (b) has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
— chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;
— wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface.
(a) is debarked; and
(b) has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
31. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. (a) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or (b) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.
(a) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or
(b) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.
32. Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ (a) is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and (b) displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
(a) is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and
(b) displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
‘30. Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. — chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants; — wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. (a) is debarked; and (b) has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
— chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;
— wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface.
(a) is debarked; and
(b) has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
31. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. (a) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or (b) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.
(a) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or
(b) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.
32. Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ (a) is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and (b) displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
(a) is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and
(b) displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
— chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;
— wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface.
(a) is debarked; and
(b) has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
(a) is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or
(b) has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.
(a) is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and
(b) displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
3. In Annex XI, Part A, point 12, to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, the entry ‘AcerL.,AesculusL.,AlnusL.,BetulaL.,CarpinusL.,CercidiphyllumSiebold & Zucc.,CorylusL.,FagusL.,FraxinusL.,KoelreuteriaLaxm.,PlatanusL.,PopulusL.,SalixL.,TiliaL. andUlmusL., …’ is replaced by the following:‘AcerL.,AesculusL.,BetulaL.,FraxinusL.,PopulusL.,SalixL. andUlmusL., including wood which has not kept its natural round surfaceFuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms; wood in chips or particles; sawdust and wood waste and scrap, whether or not agglomerated in logs, briquettes, pellets or similar forms:– Fuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4401 12 00– Wood in chips or particles:– – Non-coniferous:– – – Other (than of eucalyptus (Eucalyptus spp.)):ex 4401 22 90– Wood waste and scrap, not agglomerated:– – – Bark and production waste, scrap, rejects and residues:ex 4401 49 10– – – Other:ex 4401 49 90Wood in the rough, not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4403 12 00Wood in the rough, whether or not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Other than treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4403 95 104403 95 904403 96 00– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4403 97 00– – Of other:ex 4403 99 00Split poles; piles, pickets and stakes of wood, pointed but not sawn lengthwise:– Non-coniferous:ex 4404 20 00Railway or tramway sleepers (cross-ties) of wood:– Not impregnated:– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 12 00– Other (than not impregnated):– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 92 00Wood sawn or chipped lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed, of a thickness exceeding 6 mm:– – Of maple (Acerspp.):4407 93 104407 93 914407 93 99– – Of ash (Fraxinusspp.):4407 95 104407 95 914407 95 99– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4407 96 104407 96 914407 96 99– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99– – Of other:ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90Sheets for veneering (including those obtained by slicing laminated wood), for plywood or for similar laminated wood and other wood, sawn lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded, spliced or end-jointed, of a thickness not exceeding 6 mm:ex 4408 90 15ex 4408 90 35ex 4408 90 95Wood (including strips and friezes for parquet flooring, not assembled) continuously shaped (tongued, grooved, rebated, chamfered, V-jointed, beaded, moulded, rounded or the like) along any of its edges, ends or faces, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed:– – – Non-coniferous, other:ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99Casks, barrels, vats, tubs and other coopers’ products and parts thereof, of wood, including staves:ex 4416 00 00Prefabricated buildings of wood:ex 9406 10 00China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States’ ‘AcerL.,AesculusL.,BetulaL.,FraxinusL.,PopulusL.,SalixL. andUlmusL., including wood which has not kept its natural round surface Fuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms; wood in chips or particles; sawdust and wood waste and scrap, whether or not agglomerated in logs, briquettes, pellets or similar forms:– Fuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4401 12 00– Wood in chips or particles:– – Non-coniferous:– – – Other (than of eucalyptus (Eucalyptus spp.)):ex 4401 22 90– Wood waste and scrap, not agglomerated:– – – Bark and production waste, scrap, rejects and residues:ex 4401 49 10– – – Other:ex 4401 49 90Wood in the rough, not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4403 12 00Wood in the rough, whether or not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Other than treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4403 95 104403 95 904403 96 00– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4403 97 00– – Of other:ex 4403 99 00Split poles; piles, pickets and stakes of wood, pointed but not sawn lengthwise:– Non-coniferous:ex 4404 20 00Railway or tramway sleepers (cross-ties) of wood:– Not impregnated:– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 12 00– Other (than not impregnated):– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 92 00Wood sawn or chipped lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed, of a thickness exceeding 6 mm:– – Of maple (Acerspp.):4407 93 104407 93 914407 93 99– – Of ash (Fraxinusspp.):4407 95 104407 95 914407 95 99– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4407 96 104407 96 914407 96 99– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99– – Of other:ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90Sheets for veneering (including those obtained by slicing laminated wood), for plywood or for similar laminated wood and other wood, sawn lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded, spliced or end-jointed, of a thickness not exceeding 6 mm:ex 4408 90 15ex 4408 90 35ex 4408 90 95Wood (including strips and friezes for parquet flooring, not assembled) continuously shaped (tongued, grooved, rebated, chamfered, V-jointed, beaded, moulded, rounded or the like) along any of its edges, ends or faces, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed:– – – Non-coniferous, other:ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99Casks, barrels, vats, tubs and other coopers’ products and parts thereof, of wood, including staves:ex 4416 00 00Prefabricated buildings of wood:ex 9406 10 00 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States’
‘AcerL.,AesculusL.,BetulaL.,FraxinusL.,PopulusL.,SalixL. andUlmusL., including wood which has not kept its natural round surface Fuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms; wood in chips or particles; sawdust and wood waste and scrap, whether or not agglomerated in logs, briquettes, pellets or similar forms:– Fuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4401 12 00– Wood in chips or particles:– – Non-coniferous:– – – Other (than of eucalyptus (Eucalyptus spp.)):ex 4401 22 90– Wood waste and scrap, not agglomerated:– – – Bark and production waste, scrap, rejects and residues:ex 4401 49 10– – – Other:ex 4401 49 90Wood in the rough, not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4403 12 00Wood in the rough, whether or not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Other than treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4403 95 104403 95 904403 96 00– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4403 97 00– – Of other:ex 4403 99 00Split poles; piles, pickets and stakes of wood, pointed but not sawn lengthwise:– Non-coniferous:ex 4404 20 00Railway or tramway sleepers (cross-ties) of wood:– Not impregnated:– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 12 00– Other (than not impregnated):– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 92 00Wood sawn or chipped lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed, of a thickness exceeding 6 mm:– – Of maple (Acerspp.):4407 93 104407 93 914407 93 99– – Of ash (Fraxinusspp.):4407 95 104407 95 914407 95 99– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4407 96 104407 96 914407 96 99– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99– – Of other:ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90Sheets for veneering (including those obtained by slicing laminated wood), for plywood or for similar laminated wood and other wood, sawn lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded, spliced or end-jointed, of a thickness not exceeding 6 mm:ex 4408 90 15ex 4408 90 35ex 4408 90 95Wood (including strips and friezes for parquet flooring, not assembled) continuously shaped (tongued, grooved, rebated, chamfered, V-jointed, beaded, moulded, rounded or the like) along any of its edges, ends or faces, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed:– – – Non-coniferous, other:ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99Casks, barrels, vats, tubs and other coopers’ products and parts thereof, of wood, including staves:ex 4416 00 00Prefabricated buildings of wood:ex 9406 10 00 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States’
‘AcerL.,AesculusL.,BetulaL.,FraxinusL.,PopulusL.,SalixL. andUlmusL., including wood which has not kept its natural round surface Fuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms; wood in chips or particles; sawdust and wood waste and scrap, whether or not agglomerated in logs, briquettes, pellets or similar forms:– Fuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4401 12 00– Wood in chips or particles:– – Non-coniferous:– – – Other (than of eucalyptus (Eucalyptus spp.)):ex 4401 22 90– Wood waste and scrap, not agglomerated:– – – Bark and production waste, scrap, rejects and residues:ex 4401 49 10– – – Other:ex 4401 49 90Wood in the rough, not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4403 12 00Wood in the rough, whether or not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Other than treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4403 95 104403 95 904403 96 00– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4403 97 00– – Of other:ex 4403 99 00Split poles; piles, pickets and stakes of wood, pointed but not sawn lengthwise:– Non-coniferous:ex 4404 20 00Railway or tramway sleepers (cross-ties) of wood:– Not impregnated:– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 12 00– Other (than not impregnated):– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 92 00Wood sawn or chipped lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed, of a thickness exceeding 6 mm:– – Of maple (Acerspp.):4407 93 104407 93 914407 93 99– – Of ash (Fraxinusspp.):4407 95 104407 95 914407 95 99– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4407 96 104407 96 914407 96 99– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99– – Of other:ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90Sheets for veneering (including those obtained by slicing laminated wood), for plywood or for similar laminated wood and other wood, sawn lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded, spliced or end-jointed, of a thickness not exceeding 6 mm:ex 4408 90 15ex 4408 90 35ex 4408 90 95Wood (including strips and friezes for parquet flooring, not assembled) continuously shaped (tongued, grooved, rebated, chamfered, V-jointed, beaded, moulded, rounded or the like) along any of its edges, ends or faces, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed:– – – Non-coniferous, other:ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99Casks, barrels, vats, tubs and other coopers’ products and parts thereof, of wood, including staves:ex 4416 00 00Prefabricated buildings of wood:ex 9406 10 00 China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States’
4. In Annex XIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, the following points 4.2 and 4.3. are inserted after point 4.1:‘4.2.Wood, other than in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas or wood retaining all or part of its round surface not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 30 of Annex VIII.4.3.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 31 of Annex VIII.’ ‘4.2. Wood, other than in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas or wood retaining all or part of its round surface not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 30 of Annex VIII. 4.3. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 31 of Annex VIII.’
‘4.2. Wood, other than in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas or wood retaining all or part of its round surface not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 30 of Annex VIII.
4.3. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 31 of Annex VIII.’
‘4.2. Wood, other than in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas or wood retaining all or part of its round surface not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 30 of Annex VIII.
4.3. Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 31 of Annex VIII.’
THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2016/2031 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26 October 2016 on protective measures against pests of plants, amending Regulations (EU) No 228/2013, (EU) No 652/2014 and (EU) No 1143/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council and repealing Council Directives 69/464/EEC, 74/647/EEC, 93/85/EEC, 98/57/EC, 2000/29/EC, 2006/91/EC and 2007/33/EC(1), and in particular Article 41(3), first subparagraph, and Articles 72(2) and 79(2),
(1) Regulation (EU) 2016/2031 and Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072(2)replaced the provisions of Council Directive 2000/29/EC(3)concerning protective measures against organisms harmful to plants. They have updated and elaborated further the respective rules on protective measures against pests of plants.
(2) More specifically, Annex VII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 establishes a list of plants, plant products and other objects, originating from third countries, and the corresponding special requirements for their introduction into the Union territory. Annex VIII to that Regulation sets out a list of plants, plant products and other objects, originating in the Union territory and the corresponding special requirements for their movement within the Union territory. Annex XI to that Regulation sets out a list of plants, plant products and other objects subject to phytosanitary certificates and those for which such certificates are not required for their introduction into the Union territory. Annex XIII to that Regulation lists the plants, plant products and other objects for which a plant passport is required for their movement within the Union territory.
(3) Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(4)establishes measures to prevent the introduction into, establishment and spread within the Union territory ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster). It includes requirements concerning the introduction into, and movement within, the Union of certain plants and plant products.
(4) Commission Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893(5)establishes measures to prevent the introduction into and the spread within the Union ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky). It was repealed by Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952(6)establishing measures concerning the eradication ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) from the Union territory.
(5) The application of most of the measures established under Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095 and Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 have proved effective in reducing the risk of those pests to an acceptable level.
(6) It is appropriate, for reasons of consistency and legal certainty, to include those measures, where necessary in an updated form, in Annexes VII, VIII, XI and XIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 as requirements concerning the introduction into, and movement within the Union, of plants, plant products and other objects that can hostAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) orAnoplophora chinensis(Forster).
(7) In this view, new entries, in relation toAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) andAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), should be added to Annex VII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 concerning plants for planting and wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap of certain species, wood of certain species other than that form, and wood packaging material of certain species.
(8) Based on findings ofAnoplophora chinensisin the Union, the scope of the host plants of that pest should be extended to cover not onlyAesculus hippocastanum, but allAesculusspecies.
(9) However, based on the experience in the Union, the scope of the host plants ofAnoplophora glabripennisshould be reduced to species on which findings or symptoms of that pest have been found.
(10) In order to ensure a proportionate approach to the respective phytosanitary risk and to guarantee legal clarity, the special requirements of Annex VII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 related to the plants, plant products and other objects that can hostAnoplophora glabripennisshould only be applicable to those third countries, where that pest is known to be present. Those countries should be listed in Annex VII.
(11) Article 10(1) of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095, as well as Annex II, 2.A.(1)(c) of Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 require that prior to the movement of the specified plants within the Union, the plants have been grown in a site where, inter alia, targeted destructive sampling is carried out on each lot of specified plants. According to these provisions, that targeted destructive sampling is to be carried out at specific levels set out in those legal acts.
(12) Experience has shown during the application of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095, and during the application of Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893, that the established levels of destructive sampling of specified plants are disproportionately high, because they lead to the destruction of an unnecessarily large number of plants, without correspondingly increasing the confidence level of the sampling.
(13) For that reason, those requirements on destructive sampling should be removed, as it is sufficient to require that the respective sampling scheme used for inspection is to be able to identify with at least 99 % confidence level, a presence level of infested plants of 1 %.
(14) The CN codes listed in Annex VII and Annex XI to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 should be amended to reflect the most recent amendment of Council Regulation (EEC) No 2658/87(7).
(15) Moreover, new entries should be added in Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 concerning plants, wood and wood packaging material of certain species, which have spent some time in a demarcated area for containment, established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 and to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095. This is necessary to ensure that the movement of those commodities from areas where that pest is established to the rest of the Union does not present an unacceptable phytosanitary risk.
(16) In Annex XI to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, Part A, in point 3, the reference to ‘AlnusL.,CarpinusL.,CercidiphyllumSiebold & Zucc.,CorylusL.,FagusL.,Koelreuteria Laxm.,PlatanusL.,Tiliaspp.’ should be excluded, because it has been proven that these species are not the preferred hosts ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) and therefore present lower phytosanitary risk.
(17) Certain types of wood should also be added to the list contained in Annex XIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, because a plant passport is needed for their movement within the Union, thereby attesting compliance with the respective special requirements set out in Annex VIII to that Regulation.
(18) Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 should therefore be amended accordingly.
(19) The measures provided for in this Regulation are in accordance with the opinion of the Standing Committee on Plants, Animals, Food and Feed,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Amendment of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072
Article 1
Annexes VII, VIII, XI and XIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 are amended in accordance with the Annex to this Regulation.

Entry into force
Article 2
This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2016/2031 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26 October 2016 on protective measures against pests of plants, amending Regulations (EU) No 228/2013, (EU) No 652/2014 and (EU) No 1143/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council and repealing Council Directives 69/464/EEC, 74/647/EEC, 93/85/EEC, 98/57/EC, 2000/29/EC, 2006/91/EC and 2007/33/EC(1), and in particular Article 41(3), first subparagraph, and Articles 72(2) and 79(2),
(1) Regulation (EU) 2016/2031 and Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072(2)replaced the provisions of Council Directive 2000/29/EC(3)concerning protective measures against organisms harmful to plants. They have updated and elaborated further the respective rules on protective measures against pests of plants.
(2) More specifically, Annex VII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 establishes a list of plants, plant products and other objects, originating from third countries, and the corresponding special requirements for their introduction into the Union territory. Annex VIII to that Regulation sets out a list of plants, plant products and other objects, originating in the Union territory and the corresponding special requirements for their movement within the Union territory. Annex XI to that Regulation sets out a list of plants, plant products and other objects subject to phytosanitary certificates and those for which such certificates are not required for their introduction into the Union territory. Annex XIII to that Regulation lists the plants, plant products and other objects for which a plant passport is required for their movement within the Union territory.
(3) Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(4)establishes measures to prevent the introduction into, establishment and spread within the Union territory ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster). It includes requirements concerning the introduction into, and movement within, the Union of certain plants and plant products.
(4) Commission Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893(5)establishes measures to prevent the introduction into and the spread within the Union ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky). It was repealed by Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952(6)establishing measures concerning the eradication ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) from the Union territory.
(5) The application of most of the measures established under Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095 and Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 have proved effective in reducing the risk of those pests to an acceptable level.
(6) It is appropriate, for reasons of consistency and legal certainty, to include those measures, where necessary in an updated form, in Annexes VII, VIII, XI and XIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 as requirements concerning the introduction into, and movement within the Union, of plants, plant products and other objects that can hostAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) orAnoplophora chinensis(Forster).
(7) In this view, new entries, in relation toAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) andAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), should be added to Annex VII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 concerning plants for planting and wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap of certain species, wood of certain species other than that form, and wood packaging material of certain species.
(8) Based on findings ofAnoplophora chinensisin the Union, the scope of the host plants of that pest should be extended to cover not onlyAesculus hippocastanum, but allAesculusspecies.
(9) However, based on the experience in the Union, the scope of the host plants ofAnoplophora glabripennisshould be reduced to species on which findings or symptoms of that pest have been found.
(10) In order to ensure a proportionate approach to the respective phytosanitary risk and to guarantee legal clarity, the special requirements of Annex VII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 related to the plants, plant products and other objects that can hostAnoplophora glabripennisshould only be applicable to those third countries, where that pest is known to be present. Those countries should be listed in Annex VII.
(11) Article 10(1) of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095, as well as Annex II, 2.A.(1)(c) of Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 require that prior to the movement of the specified plants within the Union, the plants have been grown in a site where, inter alia, targeted destructive sampling is carried out on each lot of specified plants. According to these provisions, that targeted destructive sampling is to be carried out at specific levels set out in those legal acts.
(12) Experience has shown during the application of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095, and during the application of Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893, that the established levels of destructive sampling of specified plants are disproportionately high, because they lead to the destruction of an unnecessarily large number of plants, without correspondingly increasing the confidence level of the sampling.
(13) For that reason, those requirements on destructive sampling should be removed, as it is sufficient to require that the respective sampling scheme used for inspection is to be able to identify with at least 99 % confidence level, a presence level of infested plants of 1 %.
(14) The CN codes listed in Annex VII and Annex XI to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 should be amended to reflect the most recent amendment of Council Regulation (EEC) No 2658/87(7).
(15) Moreover, new entries should be added in Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 concerning plants, wood and wood packaging material of certain species, which have spent some time in a demarcated area for containment, established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 and to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095. This is necessary to ensure that the movement of those commodities from areas where that pest is established to the rest of the Union does not present an unacceptable phytosanitary risk.
(16) In Annex XI to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, Part A, in point 3, the reference to ‘AlnusL.,CarpinusL.,CercidiphyllumSiebold & Zucc.,CorylusL.,FagusL.,Koelreuteria Laxm.,PlatanusL.,Tiliaspp.’ should be excluded, because it has been proven that these species are not the preferred hosts ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) and therefore present lower phytosanitary risk.
(17) Certain types of wood should also be added to the list contained in Annex XIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, because a plant passport is needed for their movement within the Union, thereby attesting compliance with the respective special requirements set out in Annex VIII to that Regulation.
(18) Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 should therefore be amended accordingly.
(19) The measures provided for in this Regulation are in accordance with the opinion of the Standing Committee on Plants, Animals, Food and Feed,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Amendment of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072

Annexes VII, VIII, XI and XIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 are amended in accordance with the Annex to this Regulation.

Entry into force

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.
ANNEX
1. | Annex VII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 is amended as follows:(a)the following points 32.8 and 32.9 are inserted after point 32.7:‘32.8Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %.32.9Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosumex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99All third countriesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %.(b)the following points 114 and 115 are added:‘114.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surfaceex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.115.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ | (a) | the following points 32.8 and 32.9 are inserted after point 32.7:‘32.8Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %.32.9Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosumex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99All third countriesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. | ‘32.8 | Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. | ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99 | China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United States | Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. | (a) | originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or | (b) | have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (i) | established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); | (ii) | subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; | (iii) | where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | — | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or | — | with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | (iv) | where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (c) | have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv). | 32.9 | Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum | ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99 | All third countries | Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. | (a) | originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or | (b) | originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or | (c) | have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (i) | established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; | (ii) | subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; | (iii) | where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | — | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or | — | with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | (iv) | where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (d) | have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv). | (b) | the following points 114 and 115 are added:‘114.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surfaceex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.115.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ | ‘114. | Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface | — | chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants, | — | wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface | ex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00 | China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States | Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. | (a) | originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or | (b) | is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. | 115. | Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. | ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10 | China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States | Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ | (a) | originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or | (b) | is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or | (c) | has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
(a) | the following points 32.8 and 32.9 are inserted after point 32.7:‘32.8Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %.32.9Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosumex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99All third countriesOfficial statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. | ‘32.8 | Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. | ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99 | China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United States | Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. | (a) | originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or | (b) | have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (i) | established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); | (ii) | subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; | (iii) | where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | — | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or | — | with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | (iv) | where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (c) | have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv). | 32.9 | Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum | ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99 | All third countries | Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. | (a) | originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or | (b) | originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or | (c) | have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (i) | established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; | (ii) | subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; | (iii) | where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | — | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or | — | with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | (iv) | where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (d) | have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).
‘32.8 | Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. | ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 99 | China, Japan, North Korea, Lebanon, South Korea, Switzerland, United States | Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(c)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (b)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. | (a) | originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or | (b) | have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (i) | established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); | (ii) | subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; | (iii) | where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | — | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or | — | with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | (iv) | where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (c) | have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).
(a) | originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) | have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (i) | established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2); | (ii) | subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; | (iii) | where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | — | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or | — | with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | (iv) | where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(i) | established as free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) in accordance with ISPM 10(*2);
(ii) | subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;
(iii) | where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | — | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or | — | with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), or
— | with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
(iv) | where, immediately prior to export, all consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in particular on branches and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(c) | have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (b), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (b)(iv).
32.9 | Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum | ex 0602 10 90ex 0602 20 20ex 0602 20 30ex 0602 20 80ex 0602 40 00ex 0602 90 41ex 0602 90 45ex 0602 90 46ex 0602 90 47ex 0602 90 48ex 0602 90 50ex 0602 90 70ex 0602 90 91ex 0602 90 99 | All third countries | Official statement that the plants:(a)originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(b)originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or(c)have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or(d)have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).The size of the sample for the inspection referred to in point (c)(iv), shall be such as to enable at least the detection of 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %. | (a) | originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or | (b) | originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or | (c) | have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (i) | established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; | (ii) | subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; | (iii) | where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | — | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or | — | with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | (iv) | where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (d) | have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).
(a) | originate in a country recognised as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the relevant International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM4, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or
(b) | originate in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*1). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the third country concerned; or
(c) | have been grown during a period of at least two years prior to export, or, in the case of plants which are younger than two years, have been grown throughout their life, in a place of production:(i)established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;(ii)subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;(iii)where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and(iv)where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or | (i) | established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10; | (ii) | subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found; | (iii) | where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | — | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or | — | with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | (iv) | where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(i) | established as free fromAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) in accordance with ISPM 10;
(ii) | subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no signs of that pest have been found;
(iii) | where the plants have been grown in a site:—with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or—with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and | — | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or | — | with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
— | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), or
— | with the application of appropriate preventive treatments and surrounded by a buffer zone with a width of at least 1 km where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) are carried out annually at appropriate times; and
(iv) | where, immediately prior to export, consignments of the plants have been subjected to an official inspection for the presence ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster), in particular on roots and stems, including targeted destructive sampling; or
(d) | have been grown from rootstocks which meet the requirements of point (c), grafted with scions and the grafted plants have been inspected in accordance with point (c)(iv).
(b) | the following points 114 and 115 are added:‘114.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surfaceex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.115.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United StatesOfficial statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ | ‘114. | Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface | — | chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants, | — | wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface | ex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00 | China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States | Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. | (a) | originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or | (b) | is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. | 115. | Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. | ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10 | China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States | Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ | (a) | originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or | (b) | is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or | (c) | has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
‘114. | Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface | — | chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants, | — | wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface | ex 4401 12 00ex 4403 12 004403 95 104403 95 904403 96 004403 97 00ex 4403 99 00ex 4404 20 00ex 4406 12 00ex 4406 92 004407 93 104407 93 914407 93 994407 95 104407 95 914407 95 994407 96 104407 96 914407 96 994407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99ex 4416 00 00ex 9406 10 00 | China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States | Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. | (a) | originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or | (b) | is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
— | chips, particles, shavings, sawdust, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants,
— | wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface
(a) | originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) | is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate, and the mark ‘HT’ is put on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
115. | Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap obtained in whole or in part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. | ex 4401 22 90ex 4401 49 90ex 4401 49 10 | China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States | Official statement that the wood:(a)originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or(b)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or(c)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’ | (a) | originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or | (b) | is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or | (c) | has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
(a) | originates in an area established by the national plant protection organisation in the country of origin as being free fromAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), in accordance with the International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures ISPM 4(*). The pest free area shall be mentioned on the phytosanitary certificate under the rubric “place of origin”, provided that this freedom status has been communicated in advance in writing to the Commission by the national plant protection organisation of the country of origin; or
(b) | is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core), which is to be indicated on the phytosanitary certificate; or
(c) | has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.’
2. | Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 is amended as follows:(a)the following points 17.2 and 17.3 are inserted after point 17.1:‘17.2Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point.17.3Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point.(b)the following points 30 to 32 are added:‘30.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface.Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.31.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.32.Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ | (a) | the following points 17.2 and 17.3 are inserted after point 17.1:‘17.2Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point.17.3Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. | ‘17.2 | Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an area | Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. | (a) | it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and | (b) | where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. | (i) | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or | (ii) | where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: | (iii) | —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. | — | preventive treatments have been applied, or | — | targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. | 17.3 | Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an area | Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. | (a) | it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and | (b) | where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. | (i) | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or | (ii) | where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and | (iii) | —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. | — | where preventive treatments have been applied, or | — | where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. | (b) | the following points 30 to 32 are added:‘30.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface.Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.31.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.32.Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ | ‘30. | Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. | — | chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants; | — | wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. | Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. | (a) | is debarked; and | (b) | has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. | 31. | Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 | Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. | (a) | is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or | (b) | has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. | 32. | Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 | The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ | (a) | is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and | (b) | displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
(a) | the following points 17.2 and 17.3 are inserted after point 17.1:‘17.2Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point.17.3Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an areaOfficial statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. | ‘17.2 | Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an area | Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. | (a) | it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and | (b) | where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. | (i) | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or | (ii) | where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: | (iii) | —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. | — | preventive treatments have been applied, or | — | targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. | 17.3 | Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an area | Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. | (a) | it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and | (b) | where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. | (i) | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or | (ii) | where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and | (iii) | —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. | — | where preventive treatments have been applied, or | — | where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
‘17.2 | Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp., andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or introduced into a place of production in such an area | Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. | (a) | it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and | (b) | where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. | (i) | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or | (ii) | where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: | (iii) | —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. | — | preventive treatments have been applied, or | — | targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
(a) | it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the stems and branches of plants, and
(b) | where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:(iii)—preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. | (i) | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or | (ii) | where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where: | (iii) | —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. | — | preventive treatments have been applied, or | — | targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
(i) | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky); or
(ii) | where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) or signs of it were found and where:
(iii) | —preventive treatments have been applied, or—targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants. | — | preventive treatments have been applied, or | — | targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
— | preventive treatments have been applied, or
— | targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of branches and stems of plants.
17.3 | Plants for planting that have a stem diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Citrusspp.,Cornusspp.,Corylusspp.,Cotoneaster spp.,Crataegusspp.,Fagusspp.,Lagerstroemiaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Ostryaspp.,Photiniaspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunus laurocerasus,Pyrusspp.,Rosaspp.,Salixspp.,Ulmusspp. andVaccinium corymbosum,originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095(*3)or introduced into a place of production in such an area | Official statement that the plants have been grown during at least two years prior to movement, or in the case of plants which are younger than two years, throughout their life, in a place of production which fulfils all of the following requirements:(a)it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and(b)where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.The size of the sample for inspection under point (a) has been such as to enable the detection of at least 1 % level of infestation with a level of confidence of 99 %;Rootstocks which meet the requirements of points (a) and (b) may be grafted with scions, which have not been grown under these conditions, but which are no larger than 1 cm in diameter at their thickest point. | (a) | it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and | (b) | where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. | (i) | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or | (ii) | where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and | (iii) | —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. | — | where preventive treatments have been applied, or | — | where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(a) | it has been subjected annually to at least two official inspections for any sign ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) carried out at appropriate times, and no such sign has been found, including where appropriate targeted destructive sampling on the roots and stems of plants, and
(b) | where the plants have been grown in a site:(i)with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or(ii)where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and(iii)—where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. | (i) | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or | (ii) | where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and | (iii) | —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. | — | where preventive treatments have been applied, or | — | where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(i) | with physical isolation against the introduction ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster); or
(ii) | where official surveys for the presence or signs ofAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) have been carried out annually within a width of at least 1 km around the site at appropriate times, and noAnoplophora chinensis(Forster) or signs of it were found; and
(iii) | —where preventive treatments have been applied, or—where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants. | — | where preventive treatments have been applied, or | — | where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
— | where preventive treatments have been applied, or
— | where targeted destructive sampling has been carried out on each lot prior to movement, including targeted destructive sampling of roots and stems of plants.
(b) | the following points 30 to 32 are added:‘30.Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface.Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.31.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.32.Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ | ‘30. | Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. | — | chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants; | — | wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. | Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. | (a) | is debarked; and | (b) | has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. | 31. | Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 | Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. | (a) | is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or | (b) | has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. | 32. | Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 | The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ | (a) | is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and | (b) | displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
‘30. | Wood ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in demarcated areas established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 or not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas, other than in the form of:—chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;—wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. | — | chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants; | — | wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface. | Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked; and(b)has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage. | (a) | is debarked; and | (b) | has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
— | chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part from these plants;
— | wood packaging material, in the form of packing cases, boxes, crates, drums and similar packings, pallets, box pallets and other load boards, pallet collars, dunnage, whether or not actually in use in the transport of objects of all kinds, except dunnage supporting consignments of wood, which is constructed from wood of the same type and quality as the wood in the consignments and which meets the same Union phytosanitary requirements as the wood in the consignment, but including that which has not kept its natural round surface.
(a) | is debarked; and
(b) | has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood, including at its core, and indicated by the mark “HT” on the wood or on any wrapping in accordance with current usage.
31. | Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap, obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 | Official statement that the wood:(a)is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or(b)has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width. | (a) | is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or | (b) | has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.
(a) | is debarked and has undergone an appropriate heat treatment to achieve a minimum temperature of 56 °C for a minimum duration of 30 continuous minutes throughout the entire profile of the wood (including at its core); or
(b) | has been processed into pieces of not more than 2,5 cm thickness and width.
32. | Wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp. originating in a demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5 of Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 | The wood packaging material:(a)is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and(b)displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’ | (a) | is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and | (b) | displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
(a) | is made of debarked wood, as specified in Annex I to FAO International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures No 15 on Regulation of wood packaging material in international trade, and has been subjected to one of the approved treatments as specified in Annex I to that International Standard, and
(b) | displays a mark as specified in Annex II to that International Standard, indicating that the wood packaging material has been subjected to an approved phytosanitary treatment in accordance with this standard.’
3. | In Annex XI, Part A, point 12, to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, the entry ‘AcerL.,AesculusL.,AlnusL.,BetulaL.,CarpinusL.,CercidiphyllumSiebold & Zucc.,CorylusL.,FagusL.,FraxinusL.,KoelreuteriaLaxm.,PlatanusL.,PopulusL.,SalixL.,TiliaL. andUlmusL., …’ is replaced by the following:‘AcerL.,AesculusL.,BetulaL.,FraxinusL.,PopulusL.,SalixL. andUlmusL., including wood which has not kept its natural round surfaceFuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms; wood in chips or particles; sawdust and wood waste and scrap, whether or not agglomerated in logs, briquettes, pellets or similar forms:– Fuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4401 12 00– Wood in chips or particles:– – Non-coniferous:– – – Other (than of eucalyptus (Eucalyptus spp.)):ex 4401 22 90– Wood waste and scrap, not agglomerated:– – – Bark and production waste, scrap, rejects and residues:ex 4401 49 10– – – Other:ex 4401 49 90Wood in the rough, not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4403 12 00Wood in the rough, whether or not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Other than treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4403 95 104403 95 904403 96 00– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4403 97 00– – Of other:ex 4403 99 00Split poles; piles, pickets and stakes of wood, pointed but not sawn lengthwise:– Non-coniferous:ex 4404 20 00Railway or tramway sleepers (cross-ties) of wood:– Not impregnated:– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 12 00– Other (than not impregnated):– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 92 00Wood sawn or chipped lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed, of a thickness exceeding 6 mm:– – Of maple (Acerspp.):4407 93 104407 93 914407 93 99– – Of ash (Fraxinusspp.):4407 95 104407 95 914407 95 99– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4407 96 104407 96 914407 96 99– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99– – Of other:ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90Sheets for veneering (including those obtained by slicing laminated wood), for plywood or for similar laminated wood and other wood, sawn lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded, spliced or end-jointed, of a thickness not exceeding 6 mm:ex 4408 90 15ex 4408 90 35ex 4408 90 95Wood (including strips and friezes for parquet flooring, not assembled) continuously shaped (tongued, grooved, rebated, chamfered, V-jointed, beaded, moulded, rounded or the like) along any of its edges, ends or faces, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed:– – – Non-coniferous, other:ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99Casks, barrels, vats, tubs and other coopers’ products and parts thereof, of wood, including staves:ex 4416 00 00Prefabricated buildings of wood:ex 9406 10 00China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States’ | ‘AcerL.,AesculusL.,BetulaL.,FraxinusL.,PopulusL.,SalixL. andUlmusL., including wood which has not kept its natural round surface | Fuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms; wood in chips or particles; sawdust and wood waste and scrap, whether or not agglomerated in logs, briquettes, pellets or similar forms:– Fuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4401 12 00– Wood in chips or particles:– – Non-coniferous:– – – Other (than of eucalyptus (Eucalyptus spp.)):ex 4401 22 90– Wood waste and scrap, not agglomerated:– – – Bark and production waste, scrap, rejects and residues:ex 4401 49 10– – – Other:ex 4401 49 90Wood in the rough, not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4403 12 00Wood in the rough, whether or not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Other than treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4403 95 104403 95 904403 96 00– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4403 97 00– – Of other:ex 4403 99 00Split poles; piles, pickets and stakes of wood, pointed but not sawn lengthwise:– Non-coniferous:ex 4404 20 00Railway or tramway sleepers (cross-ties) of wood:– Not impregnated:– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 12 00– Other (than not impregnated):– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 92 00Wood sawn or chipped lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed, of a thickness exceeding 6 mm:– – Of maple (Acerspp.):4407 93 104407 93 914407 93 99– – Of ash (Fraxinusspp.):4407 95 104407 95 914407 95 99– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4407 96 104407 96 914407 96 99– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99– – Of other:ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90Sheets for veneering (including those obtained by slicing laminated wood), for plywood or for similar laminated wood and other wood, sawn lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded, spliced or end-jointed, of a thickness not exceeding 6 mm:ex 4408 90 15ex 4408 90 35ex 4408 90 95Wood (including strips and friezes for parquet flooring, not assembled) continuously shaped (tongued, grooved, rebated, chamfered, V-jointed, beaded, moulded, rounded or the like) along any of its edges, ends or faces, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed:– – – Non-coniferous, other:ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99Casks, barrels, vats, tubs and other coopers’ products and parts thereof, of wood, including staves:ex 4416 00 00Prefabricated buildings of wood:ex 9406 10 00 | China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States’
‘AcerL.,AesculusL.,BetulaL.,FraxinusL.,PopulusL.,SalixL. andUlmusL., including wood which has not kept its natural round surface | Fuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms; wood in chips or particles; sawdust and wood waste and scrap, whether or not agglomerated in logs, briquettes, pellets or similar forms:– Fuel wood, in logs, in billets, in twigs, in faggots or in similar forms:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4401 12 00– Wood in chips or particles:– – Non-coniferous:– – – Other (than of eucalyptus (Eucalyptus spp.)):ex 4401 22 90– Wood waste and scrap, not agglomerated:– – – Bark and production waste, scrap, rejects and residues:ex 4401 49 10– – – Other:ex 4401 49 90Wood in the rough, not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Non-coniferous:ex 4403 12 00Wood in the rough, whether or not stripped of bark or sapwood, or roughly squared:– Other than treated with paint, stains, creosote or other preservatives:– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4403 95 104403 95 904403 96 00– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4403 97 00– – Of other:ex 4403 99 00Split poles; piles, pickets and stakes of wood, pointed but not sawn lengthwise:– Non-coniferous:ex 4404 20 00Railway or tramway sleepers (cross-ties) of wood:– Not impregnated:– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 12 00– Other (than not impregnated):– – Non coniferous:ex 4406 92 00Wood sawn or chipped lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed, of a thickness exceeding 6 mm:– – Of maple (Acerspp.):4407 93 104407 93 914407 93 99– – Of ash (Fraxinusspp.):4407 95 104407 95 914407 95 99– – Of birch (Betulaspp.):4407 96 104407 96 914407 96 99– – Of poplar and aspen (Populusspp.):4407 97 104407 97 914407 97 99– – Of other:ex 4407 99 27ex 4407 99 40ex 4407 99 90Sheets for veneering (including those obtained by slicing laminated wood), for plywood or for similar laminated wood and other wood, sawn lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded, spliced or end-jointed, of a thickness not exceeding 6 mm:ex 4408 90 15ex 4408 90 35ex 4408 90 95Wood (including strips and friezes for parquet flooring, not assembled) continuously shaped (tongued, grooved, rebated, chamfered, V-jointed, beaded, moulded, rounded or the like) along any of its edges, ends or faces, whether or not planed, sanded or end-jointed:– – – Non-coniferous, other:ex 4409 29 91ex 4409 29 99Casks, barrels, vats, tubs and other coopers’ products and parts thereof, of wood, including staves:ex 4416 00 00Prefabricated buildings of wood:ex 9406 10 00 | China, Japan, Lebanon, North Korea, South Korea, Switzerland, United States’
4. | In Annex XIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, the following points 4.2 and 4.3. are inserted after point 4.1:‘4.2.Wood, other than in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas or wood retaining all or part of its round surface not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 30 of Annex VIII.4.3.Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 31 of Annex VIII.’ | ‘4.2. | Wood, other than in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas or wood retaining all or part of its round surface not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 30 of Annex VIII. | 4.3. | Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 31 of Annex VIII.’
‘4.2. | Wood, other than in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas or wood retaining all or part of its round surface not originating but introduced into those demarcated areas ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 30 of Annex VIII.
4.3. | Wood in the form of chips, particles, shavings, wood waste and scrap originating in demarcated areas obtained in whole or part fromAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp., as referred to in point 31 of Annex VIII.’
(*1) ISPM 4 Requirements for the establishment of pest free areas, IPPC, FAO, 1995
(*2) ISPM 10 Requirements for the establishment of pest free places of production and pest free production sites, IPPC, FAO, 1999.’;
(*3) Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/2095 of 28 October 2022 establishing measures to prevent the introduction into, establishment and spread within the Union territory of Anoplophora chinensis (Forster) and repealing Decision 2012/138/EU (OJ L 281, 31.10.2022, p. 53, ELI: http://data.europa.eu/eli/reg_impl/2022/2095/oj).’;

Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2025/1952 of 29 September 2025 on measures to prevent the establishment and the spread within the Union territory of Anoplophora glabripennis (Motschulsky) and for the eradication and containment of that pest within certain demarcated areas and repealing Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893

Official Journalof the European Union ENL series
2025/1952 3.12.2025
(1) Commission Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893(2)establishes measures to prevent the introduction into and the spread within the Union ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) (‘the specified pest’).
(2) Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072(3)lays down, in Part B of its Annex II, the list of Union quarantine pests known to occur in the Union territory.
(3) The specified pest is included in the list contained in Part B of Annex II to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, as it is known to occur in certain parts of the Union territory. It is a polyphagous pest reported to have an impact on many different plant species in the Union territory.
(4) The specified pest is also listed in the Annex to Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2019/1702(4)as a priority pest.
(5) Plants which are hosts of the specified pest (‘host plants’) should be subjected to surveys in order to ensure the earliest possible detection of the specified pest.
(6) Several host plants could be used to attract the specified pest and thus delimit its presence in case of finding. In this respect, they should be referred to as ‘sentinel plants’.
(7) Host plants, which in the past have been found to be infested by the specified pest in the Union territory, are most likely to contribute to its spread. They should be referred to as ‘specified plants’. Moreover, they should be subjected to certain measures for eradication or containment, as applicable, in the demarcated areas.
(8) In order to ensure the early detection and eradication of the specified pest in the Union territory, where the specified pest is not known to occur, Member States should carry out annual surveys. Such surveys should cover all the host plants, in order to be most effective. Those surveys should be based on the scientific advice of the European Food Safety Authority (‘the Authority’) contained in the General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys for plant pests(5).
(9) Moreover, in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2016/2031, each Member State is to draw up and keep up to date a contingency plan for each priority pest which is able to enter and become established in its territory. Based on the experience from previous outbreaks, it is necessary to adopt specific rules implementing Article 25 of Regulation (EU) 2016/2031 for drawing up a comprehensive contingency plan in case of findings of the specified pest in the Union.
(10) To prevent the spread of the specified pest in the Union territory and bearing in mind its spread capacity, the width of a buffer zone should be at least 2 km beyond the boundaries of the infested zone.
(11) In order to ensure the immediate application of eradication measures and to prevent the further spread of the specified pest to the rest of the Union territory, it is necessary to set out rules concerning the annual surveys of the demarcated areas. Those rules should be based on the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys for plant pests in order to adapt to the most updated scientific and technical evidence.
(12) In order to ensure a proportionate response to the respective phytosanitary risk from the specified pest, it is necessary to set out rules for the reduction of the size of the demarcated areas, derogations from their establishment and their abolition. Specific conditions should be established for the application of those rules, to ensure that the specified pest does not spread to the rest of the Union territory.
(13) In cases of isolated findings of the specified pest in the Union territory, the establishment of a demarcated area should not be required if the specified pest can be eliminated from the respective plants, and if there is evidence that those plants were infested before their introduction into the area, or that the concrete finding is not expected to lead to establishment of the specified pest. This is the most proportionate approach, as long as the surveys carried out in the area concerned confirm the absence of the specified pest. However, in very specific cases, where the emergence and spread of the specified pest in the Union territory can unequivocally be excluded and the respective risk is considered negligeable, such surveillance is not justified and thus should not be required.
(14) In certain areas of the Union territory, the eradication of the specified pest is no longer possible. The Member States concerned should therefore be allowed to apply measures for the containment of that pest within those areas, instead of its eradication.
(15) The measures in the demarcated areas under containment should be less stringent than the measures for eradication but they should ensure a diligent survey approach and taking precautionary actions, mainly in the respective buffer zones, in order to prevent the spread of the specified pest to the rest of the Union territory.
(16) Bearing in mind that the measures concerning the demarcated areas for containment are less stringent, the width of the buffer zone should be increased to at least 4 km to ensure that the specified pest does not spread outside those demarcated areas.
(17) Member States should notify to the Commission and to the other Member States every demarcated area for containment that they intend to designate or modify, in order for the Commission to obtain an overview of the spread of the specified pest in the Union territory and to be able to include the respective area in a list of demarcated areas for containment in Annex I to this Regulation.
(18) In order to ensure the immediate removal of the infested plants and to prevent the further spread of the specified pest to the rest of the Union territory, the surveys of the buffer zones should be carried out annually at the most appropriate time of the year and with sufficient intensity, taking into account the possibility for the competent authorities to further monitor the host plants in the infested zones for containment.
(19) In order to prevent the possible spread of the specified pest outside demarcated areas, the intensity of the annual surveys around the places of production in the demarcated areas should be more intensive than in the rest of these areas.
(20) The measures contained in Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 concerning the introduction into, and movement within, the Union territory of the specified plants, are included in Annexes VII and VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, while its measures concerning surveys, eradication and containment of the specified pest are updated and replaced by the measures of this Regulation.
(21) Therefore, Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 should be repealed and replaced by this Regulation.
(22) The provisions of this Regulation concerning surveys on the basis of the Authority’s Pest Survey Card onAnoplophora glabripennis(6)(‘pest survey card’) and the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys should apply from 1 January 2027, in order to allow sufficient time for the competent authorities to plan, prepare the design and allocate sufficient resources for such surveys.
(23) The measures provided for in this Regulation are in accordance with the opinion of the Standing Committee on Plants, Animals, Food and Feed,
(1) ‘specified pest’ meansAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky);
(2) ‘specified plants’ means plants for planting, that have a stem or root collar diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.;
(3) ‘host plants’ means plants for planting, that have a stem or root collar diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Albiziaspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Celtisspp.,Cercidiphyllumspp.,Corylusspp.,Elaeagnusspp.,Fagusspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Gleditsiaspp., Hibiscusspp.,Koelreuteriaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Morusspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunusspp.,Pyrusspp.,Ostryaspp., Quercus rubra, Robiniaspp.,Salixspp.,Sophoraspp.,Sorbusspp.,Tiliaspp. andUlmusspp.;
(4) ‘specified wood and wood packaging material’ means wood and wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.;
(5) ‘sentinel plants’ means specified plants specifically planted to support the early detection of the specified pest and used for surveys;
(6) ‘demarcated area for containment’ means an area, where the specified pest cannot be eradicated, listed in Annex I.
(a) by using techniques capable of detecting infestation at crown height;
(b) in open air, natural and urban areas, stops along the roads and railways, as well as in nurseries, garden centres, trading centres, hardwood sawmills, and other relevant sites, where the competent authorities may consider more likely to detect the specified pest;
(c) taking into account the presence and biology of host plants, and the scientific and technical information referred to in the pest survey card.
(a) visual examination of host plants; and
(b) where appropriate, collection of samples and testing of plants for planting, wood or wood packaging material.
(a) the eradication of the specified pest, as set out in Article 9;
(b) the necessary resources to be made available, and the procedures for making those resources available, in case of a confirmed or suspected presence of the specified pest;
(c) the provisions for the application of the special requirements regarding the introduction of host plants into, and their movement within, the Union territory, as set out in Annexes VII and VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072;
(d) the procedures for identifying the owners of private properties, where measures are to be applied in case of detection of the specified pest.
(a) a zone including all infested plants and all specified plants which are liable to become infested, within at least 100 m radius around infested plants (‘infested zone’);
(b) a buffer zone:(i)with a width of at least 2 km beyond the boundary of the infested zone in the case of a demarcated area for the eradication of the specified pest;(ii)with a width of at least 4 km beyond the boundary of the infested zone, in the case of a demarcated area for containment. (i) with a width of at least 2 km beyond the boundary of the infested zone in the case of a demarcated area for the eradication of the specified pest; (ii) with a width of at least 4 km beyond the boundary of the infested zone, in the case of a demarcated area for containment.
(i) with a width of at least 2 km beyond the boundary of the infested zone in the case of a demarcated area for the eradication of the specified pest;
(ii) with a width of at least 4 km beyond the boundary of the infested zone, in the case of a demarcated area for containment.
(i) with a width of at least 2 km beyond the boundary of the infested zone in the case of a demarcated area for the eradication of the specified pest;
(ii) with a width of at least 4 km beyond the boundary of the infested zone, in the case of a demarcated area for containment.
(a) the specified pest has been introduced into the area with the plants, wood or wood packaging material on which it was found, and those plants, wood or wood packaging material were infested before their introduction into the area concerned and no multiplication of the specified pest has occurred or it is an isolated finding, not expected to lead to establishment; and
(b) there is no establishment of the specified pest, and the spread or successful breeding of the specified pest is not possible due to its biology, based on the results of a specific investigation and eradication measures taken.
(a) take immediate measures to ensure the prompt eradication of the specified pest and to exclude the possibility of its spread;
(b) during at least one life cycle of the specified pest plus one additional year, and not less than four consecutive years, survey a width of at least 1 km around the infested plants or the place where the specified pest was found and regularly and intensively, in accordance with Article 3, during at least the first flying period of the specified pest;
(c) trace back the origin of the infestation, examining the specified plants, specified wood or wood packaging material around the finding for any sign of infestation, including by targeted destructive sampling, to discard the presence of larvae;
(d) raise public awareness of the threat of the specified pest; and
(e) take any other measure, which may help eradicate the specified pest, taking account of ISPM No 9(7)and applying an integrated approach in accordance with the principles set out in ISPM No 14(8).
(a) the immediate felling of infested plants and plants with symptoms caused by the specified pest, and the complete removal of their roots if larval galleries are observed below the root collar of the infested plant; in cases where the infested plants were found outside the flying period of the specified pest, the felling and removal shall be carried out before the start of the next flying period;
(b) the felling of all specified plants within a radius of at least 100 m around infested plants and the examination of those specified plants for any sign of infestation;
(c) removal, examination and safe disposal of plants felled in accordance with points (a) and (b), taking all necessary precautions to avoid spreading of the specified pest during and after felling;
(d) removal, examination and safe disposal of the wood, bark and wood packaging material associated with the infestation, taking all necessary precautions to avoid spreading of the specified pest;
(e) prohibition of any movement of potentially infested specified plants, specified wood and wood packaging material out of the demarcated area;
(f) investigation of the origin of the infestation by tracing back the plants, wood, bark and other objects associated with the infestation, and examination thereof for any sign of infestation, including targeted destructive sampling;
(g) replacement of specified plants by other non-susceptible plant species, where appropriate;
(h) prohibition of the presence of new specified plants in the open air in the area referred to in point (b), except for places of production referred to in Annex VIII, point 17.2, of Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 and sentinel plants;
(i) raising public awareness of the threat of the specified pest and the eradication measures set out in this Article, including the conditions regarding movement of specified plants from the demarcated area;
(j) where necessary, specific measures to address any particularity or complication that could reasonably be expected to prevent, hinder or delay eradication, in particular those related to the accessibility and adequate eradication of all plants that are infested or suspected of infestation, irrespective of their location, public or private ownership or the person or entity responsible for them;
(k) any other measure which may contribute to the eradication of the specified pest, in accordance with International Standard for Phytosanitary Measure (‘ISPM’) No 9(9)and to applying a systems approach in accordance with the principles set out in ISPM No 14(10).
(a) felling of infested plants and plants with symptoms caused by the specified pest, and complete removal of their roots if larval galleries are observed below the root collar of the infested plant;
(b) removal, examination and safe disposal of plants felled in accordance with point (a), taking the necessary precautions to avoid spreading of the specified pest during and after felling;
(c) prohibition of any movement of potentially infested specified plants, specified wood and wood packaging material out of the demarcated area;
(d) where appropriate, replacement of specified plants by other non-susceptible plants;
(e) prohibition of the presence in the infested zone of new specified plants in the open air, except for places of production referred to in point 17.2 of Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 and planting of sentinel plants;
(f) raising public awareness of the threat of the specified pest and the containment measures set out in this Article, including the conditions regarding movement of specified plants out of the demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5;
(g) where necessary, specific measures to address any other issue or complication that could reasonably be expected to prevent, hinder or delay containment, in particular those related to the accessibility and adequate felling and destruction of all plants that are infested or suspected of infestation, irrespective of their location, ownership or the person responsible for them;
(h) any other measure, which may help contain the specified pest.
(a) the number of samples taken in accordance with Article 8(2);
(b) the reasons for using the derogation provided for in Article 9(4), and the measures taken as a result of it.
(a) Article 3(2);
(b) Article 5(5), second subparagraph;
(c) Article 8(4);
(d) Article 9(2);
(e) Article 10(2).
Europhyt number of demarcated area (DA) Zone of DA Region Municipalities or other administrative/geographic delimitations
206 Infested zone Marche Part of the following municipalities: Ostra, Senigallia, Trecastelli, Corinaldo, Ostra Vetere, Belvedere Ostrense
Buffer zone Part of the following municipalities: Ostra, Senigallia, Trecastelli, Corinaldo, Ostra Vetere, Belvedere Ostrense, Morro d’Alba, Montecarotto
358 Infested zone Marche The whole territory of the following municipalities: Monte Urano, Rapagnano, Magliano di Tenna, Belmonte Piceno, Grottazzolina, Monte Vidon Corrado.Part of the following municipalities: Sant’Elpidio a Mare, Torre San Patrizio, Monte San Pietrangeli, Francavilla d’Ete, Montegiorgio, Falerone, Servigliano, Montottone, Monte Gilberto, Ponzano di Fermo, Fermo
Buffer zone The whole territory of Porto San GiorgioPart of the following municipalities: Porto Sant’Elpidio, Sant’Elpidio a Mare, Montegranaro, Torre San Patrizio, Monte San Pietrangeli, Monte San Giusto, Corridonia, Francavilla d’Ete, Mogliano, Montegiorgio, Massa Fermana, Montappone,, Monsampietro Morico, Loro Piceno, Sant’Angelo in Pontano, Falerone, Penna San Giovanni, Servigliano, Monteleone di Fermo, Monsampietro Morico, Montottone, Monte Vidon Combatte, Monte Giberto, Petritoli, Ponzano di Fermo, Fermo, Monterubbiano, Lapedona, Santa Vittoria in Matenano.
866 Infested zone Marche The whole territory of the following municipalities: Civitanova Marche, Montecosaro.Part of the following municipalities: Morrovalle, Montegranaro, Sant’Elpidio a Mare, Porto Sant’Elpidio.
Buffer zone Part of the following municipalities: Porto Sant’Elpidio, Sant’Elpidio a Mare, Potenza Picena, Montelupone, Morrovalle, Monte San Giusto, Montegranaro.
1.Description of the Demarcated Area (DA) 1. Description of the Demarcated Area (DA) 2.Initial size of DA (ha) 2. Initial size of DA (ha) 3.Updated size of DA (ha) 3. Updated size of DA (ha) 4.Approach (eradication or containment) 4. Approach (eradication or containment) 5.Zone 5. Zone 6.Survey sites 6. Survey sites 7.Risk areas identified 7. Risk areas identified 8.Risk areas inspected 8. Risk areas inspected 9.Plant material / Commodity 9. Plant material / Commodity 10.List of host plant species 10. List of host plant species 11.Timing 11. Timing 12.Survey details 12. Survey details 13.No of symptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined 13. No of symptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined i: Total ii: Positive iii: Negative iv: Undetermined 14.No of asymptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined 14. No of asymptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined i: Total ii: Positive iii: Negative iv: Undetermined 15.Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715(1) 15. Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715(1) 16.Comments 16. Comments
1. Description of the Demarcated Area (DA)
2. Initial size of DA (ha)
3. Updated size of DA (ha)
4. Approach (eradication or containment)
5. Zone
6. Survey sites
7. Risk areas identified
8. Risk areas inspected
9. Plant material / Commodity
10. List of host plant species
11. Timing
12. Survey details
13. No of symptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined i: Total ii: Positive iii: Negative iv: Undetermined
i: Total
ii: Positive
iii: Negative
iv: Undetermined
14. No of asymptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined i: Total ii: Positive iii: Negative iv: Undetermined
i: Total
ii: Positive
iii: Negative
iv: Undetermined
15. Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715(1)
16. Comments
A)Number of visual examinations A) Number of visual examinations
A) Number of visual examinations
B)Total number of samples taken B) Total number of samples taken
B) Total number of samples taken
C)Type of traps (or other alternative method (e.g. sweep nets)) C) Type of traps (or other alternative method (e.g. sweep nets))
C) Type of traps (or other alternative method (e.g. sweep nets))
D)Number of traps (or other capturing method) D) Number of traps (or other capturing method)
D) Number of traps (or other capturing method)
E)Number of trapping sites, when different from data reported in (D) E) Number of trapping sites, when different from data reported in (D)
E) Number of trapping sites, when different from data reported in (D)
F)Type of tests (e.g. microscopic identification, PCR, ELISA) F) Type of tests (e.g. microscopic identification, PCR, ELISA)
F) Type of tests (e.g. microscopic identification, PCR, ELISA)
G)Total number of tests G) Total number of tests
G) Total number of tests
H)Other measures (e.g. sniffer dogs, drones, helicopters, awareness raising campaigns) H) Other measures (e.g. sniffer dogs, drones, helicopters, awareness raising campaigns)
H) Other measures (e.g. sniffer dogs, drones, helicopters, awareness raising campaigns)
Name Date of establishment Description Number I)Number of other measures I) Number of other measures Number Date
I) Number of other measures
A B C D E F G H I i ii iii iv i ii iii iv
1. Description of the Demarcated Area (DA)
2. Initial size of DA (ha)
3. Updated size of DA (ha)
4. Approach (eradication or containment)
5. Zone
6. Survey sites
7. Risk areas identified
8. Risk areas inspected
9. Plant material / Commodity
10. List of host plant species
11. Timing
12. Survey details
13. No of symptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined i: Total ii: Positive iii: Negative iv: Undetermined
i: Total
ii: Positive
iii: Negative
iv: Undetermined
i: Total
ii: Positive
iii: Negative
iv: Undetermined
14. No of asymptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined i: Total ii: Positive iii: Negative iv: Undetermined
i: Total
ii: Positive
iii: Negative
iv: Undetermined
i: Total
ii: Positive
iii: Negative
iv: Undetermined
15. Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715(1)
16. Comments
A) Number of visual examinations
B) Total number of samples taken
C) Type of traps (or other alternative method (e.g. sweep nets))
D) Number of traps (or other capturing method)
E) Number of trapping sites, when different from data reported in (D)
F) Type of tests (e.g. microscopic identification, PCR, ELISA)
G) Total number of tests
H) Other measures (e.g. sniffer dogs, drones, helicopters, awareness raising campaigns)
I) Number of other measures
1. Open air (production area): 1.1. field (arable, pasture); 1.2. orchard/vineyard; 1.3. nursery; 1.4. forest;
2. Open air (other): 2.1. private garden; 2.2. public sites; 2.3. conservation area; 2.4. wild plants in areas other than conservation areas; 2.5. other, with specification of the particular case (e.g. garden centre, commercial sites that uses wood packaging material, wood industry, wetlands, irrigation and drainage network);
3. Physically closed conditions: 3.1. greenhouse; 3.2. private site, other than greenhouse; 3.3. public site, other than greenhouse; 3.4. other, with specification of the particular case (e.g. garden centre, commercial sites that uses wood packaging material, wood industry).
1.Description of the Demarcated Area (DA) 1. Description of the Demarcated Area (DA) 2.Initial size of DA (ha) 2. Initial size of DA (ha) 3.Updated size of DA (ha) 3. Updated size of DA (ha) 4.Approach 4. Approach 5.Zone 5. Zone 6.Survey sites 6. Survey sites 7.Timing 7. Timing A.Survey definition (input parameters for RiBESS+) A. Survey definition (input parameters for RiBESS+) B.Sampling effort B. Sampling effort C.Survey results C. Survey results 25.Comments 25. Comments
1. Description of the Demarcated Area (DA)
2. Initial size of DA (ha)
3. Updated size of DA (ha)
4. Approach
5. Zone
6. Survey sites
7. Timing
A. Survey definition (input parameters for RiBESS+)
B. Sampling effort
C. Survey results
25. Comments
8.Target population 8. Target population 9.Epidemiological units 9. Epidemiological units 10.Detection methods 10. Detection methods 11.Sampling effectiveness 11. Sampling effectiveness 12.Method sensitivity 12. Method sensitivity 13.Risk factors (activities, locations and areas) 13. Risk factors (activities, locations and areas) 14.Number of epidemiological units inspected 14. Number of epidemiological units inspected 15.Number of visual examinations 15. Number of visual examinations 16.Number of samples 16. Number of samples 17.Number of traps 17. Number of traps 18.Number of trapping sites 18. Number of trapping sites 19.Number of tests 19. Number of tests 20.Number of other measures 20. Number of other measures 21.Results 21. Results 22.Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715 22. Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715 23.Achieved Confidence level 23. Achieved Confidence level 24.Design prevalence 24. Design prevalence
8. Target population
9. Epidemiological units
10. Detection methods
11. Sampling effectiveness
12. Method sensitivity
13. Risk factors (activities, locations and areas)
14. Number of epidemiological units inspected
15. Number of visual examinations
16. Number of samples
17. Number of traps
18. Number of trapping sites
19. Number of tests
20. Number of other measures
21. Results
22. Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715
23. Achieved Confidence level
24. Design prevalence
Name Date of establishment Description Number Host species Area (ha or other more relevant unit) Inspection units Description Units Visual examinations Trapping Testing Other methods Risk factor Risk levels Number of locations Relative risks Proportion of the host population Positive Negative Undetermined Number Date
1. Description of the Demarcated Area (DA)
2. Initial size of DA (ha)
3. Updated size of DA (ha)
4. Approach
5. Zone
6. Survey sites
7. Timing
A. Survey definition (input parameters for RiBESS+)
B. Sampling effort
C. Survey results
25. Comments
8. Target population
9. Epidemiological units
10. Detection methods
11. Sampling effectiveness
12. Method sensitivity
13. Risk factors (activities, locations and areas)
14. Number of epidemiological units inspected
15. Number of visual examinations
16. Number of samples
17. Number of traps
18. Number of trapping sites
19. Number of tests
20. Number of other measures
21. Results
22. Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715
23. Achieved Confidence level
24. Design prevalence
— the target population, epidemiological unit and inspection units;
— the detection method and method sensitivity;
— the risk factor(s), indicating the risk levels and corresponding relative risks and proportions of host plant population.
1. Open air (production area): 1.1 field (arable, pasture); 1.2. orchard/vineyard; 1.3. nursery; 1.4. forest;
2. Open air (other): 2.1. private gardens; 2.2. public sites; 2.3. conservation area; 2.4. wild plants in areas other than conservation areas; 2.5. other, with specification of the particular case (e.g. garden centre, commercial sites that uses wood packaging material, wood industry, wetlands, irrigation and drainage network.);
3. Physically closed conditions: 3.1. greenhouse; 3.2. private site, other than greenhouse; 3.3. public site, other than greenhouse; 3.4. other, with specification of the particular case (e.g. garden centre, commercial sites that uses wood packaging material, wood industry).
THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2016/2031 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26 October 2016 on protective measures against pests of plants, amending Regulations (EU) No 228/2013, (EU) No 652/2014 and (EU) No 1143/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council and repealing Council Directives 69/464/EEC, 74/647/EEC, 93/85/EEC, 98/57/EC, 2000/29/EC, 2006/91/EC and 2007/33/EC(1), and in particular Article 28(1) and (2) thereof,
(1) Commission Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893(2)establishes measures to prevent the introduction into and the spread within the Union ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) (‘the specified pest’).
(2) Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072(3)lays down, in Part B of its Annex II, the list of Union quarantine pests known to occur in the Union territory.
(3) The specified pest is included in the list contained in Part B of Annex II to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, as it is known to occur in certain parts of the Union territory. It is a polyphagous pest reported to have an impact on many different plant species in the Union territory.
(4) The specified pest is also listed in the Annex to Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2019/1702(4)as a priority pest.
(5) Plants which are hosts of the specified pest (‘host plants’) should be subjected to surveys in order to ensure the earliest possible detection of the specified pest.
(6) Several host plants could be used to attract the specified pest and thus delimit its presence in case of finding. In this respect, they should be referred to as ‘sentinel plants’.
(7) Host plants, which in the past have been found to be infested by the specified pest in the Union territory, are most likely to contribute to its spread. They should be referred to as ‘specified plants’. Moreover, they should be subjected to certain measures for eradication or containment, as applicable, in the demarcated areas.
(8) In order to ensure the early detection and eradication of the specified pest in the Union territory, where the specified pest is not known to occur, Member States should carry out annual surveys. Such surveys should cover all the host plants, in order to be most effective. Those surveys should be based on the scientific advice of the European Food Safety Authority (‘the Authority’) contained in the General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys for plant pests(5).
(9) Moreover, in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2016/2031, each Member State is to draw up and keep up to date a contingency plan for each priority pest which is able to enter and become established in its territory. Based on the experience from previous outbreaks, it is necessary to adopt specific rules implementing Article 25 of Regulation (EU) 2016/2031 for drawing up a comprehensive contingency plan in case of findings of the specified pest in the Union.
(10) To prevent the spread of the specified pest in the Union territory and bearing in mind its spread capacity, the width of a buffer zone should be at least 2 km beyond the boundaries of the infested zone.
(11) In order to ensure the immediate application of eradication measures and to prevent the further spread of the specified pest to the rest of the Union territory, it is necessary to set out rules concerning the annual surveys of the demarcated areas. Those rules should be based on the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys for plant pests in order to adapt to the most updated scientific and technical evidence.
(12) In order to ensure a proportionate response to the respective phytosanitary risk from the specified pest, it is necessary to set out rules for the reduction of the size of the demarcated areas, derogations from their establishment and their abolition. Specific conditions should be established for the application of those rules, to ensure that the specified pest does not spread to the rest of the Union territory.
(13) In cases of isolated findings of the specified pest in the Union territory, the establishment of a demarcated area should not be required if the specified pest can be eliminated from the respective plants, and if there is evidence that those plants were infested before their introduction into the area, or that the concrete finding is not expected to lead to establishment of the specified pest. This is the most proportionate approach, as long as the surveys carried out in the area concerned confirm the absence of the specified pest. However, in very specific cases, where the emergence and spread of the specified pest in the Union territory can unequivocally be excluded and the respective risk is considered negligeable, such surveillance is not justified and thus should not be required.
(14) In certain areas of the Union territory, the eradication of the specified pest is no longer possible. The Member States concerned should therefore be allowed to apply measures for the containment of that pest within those areas, instead of its eradication.
(15) The measures in the demarcated areas under containment should be less stringent than the measures for eradication but they should ensure a diligent survey approach and taking precautionary actions, mainly in the respective buffer zones, in order to prevent the spread of the specified pest to the rest of the Union territory.
(16) Bearing in mind that the measures concerning the demarcated areas for containment are less stringent, the width of the buffer zone should be increased to at least 4 km to ensure that the specified pest does not spread outside those demarcated areas.
(17) Member States should notify to the Commission and to the other Member States every demarcated area for containment that they intend to designate or modify, in order for the Commission to obtain an overview of the spread of the specified pest in the Union territory and to be able to include the respective area in a list of demarcated areas for containment in Annex I to this Regulation.
(18) In order to ensure the immediate removal of the infested plants and to prevent the further spread of the specified pest to the rest of the Union territory, the surveys of the buffer zones should be carried out annually at the most appropriate time of the year and with sufficient intensity, taking into account the possibility for the competent authorities to further monitor the host plants in the infested zones for containment.
(19) In order to prevent the possible spread of the specified pest outside demarcated areas, the intensity of the annual surveys around the places of production in the demarcated areas should be more intensive than in the rest of these areas.
(20) The measures contained in Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 concerning the introduction into, and movement within, the Union territory of the specified plants, are included in Annexes VII and VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, while its measures concerning surveys, eradication and containment of the specified pest are updated and replaced by the measures of this Regulation.
(21) Therefore, Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 should be repealed and replaced by this Regulation.
(22) The provisions of this Regulation concerning surveys on the basis of the Authority’s Pest Survey Card onAnoplophora glabripennis(6)(‘pest survey card’) and the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys should apply from 1 January 2027, in order to allow sufficient time for the competent authorities to plan, prepare the design and allocate sufficient resources for such surveys.
(23) The measures provided for in this Regulation are in accordance with the opinion of the Standing Committee on Plants, Animals, Food and Feed,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Subject matter
Article 1
This Regulation sets out measures to prevent the establishment and spread within the Union territory ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), measures for its eradication, where it is found present in that territory, and measures for its containment, when eradication is no longer possible.

Definitions
Article 2
For the purposes of this Regulation, the following definitions apply:
(1)
‘specified pest’ meansAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky);
(2)
‘specified plants’ means plants for planting, that have a stem or root collar diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.;
(3)
‘host plants’ means plants for planting, that have a stem or root collar diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Albiziaspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Celtisspp.,Cercidiphyllumspp.,Corylusspp.,Elaeagnusspp.,Fagusspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Gleditsiaspp., Hibiscusspp.,Koelreuteriaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Morusspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunusspp.,Pyrusspp.,Ostryaspp., Quercus rubra, Robiniaspp.,Salixspp.,Sophoraspp.,Sorbusspp.,Tiliaspp. andUlmusspp.;
(4)
‘specified wood and wood packaging material’ means wood and wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.;
(5)
‘sentinel plants’ means specified plants specifically planted to support the early detection of the specified pest and used for surveys;
(6)
‘demarcated area for containment’ means an area, where the specified pest cannot be eradicated, listed in Annex I.

Surveys of the Union territory outside of demarcated areas
Article 3
1. Competent authorities shall conduct risk-based annual surveys of the host plants in the areas of their territories, where the specified pest is not known to occur, for the presence of that pest.
2. The design and sampling scheme of those surveys shall allow to detect, within the Member State concerned, with a sufficient level of confidence, a low level of presence of infested plants.
They shall be based on the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys for plant pests.
3. The surveys shall be carried out:
(a)
by using techniques capable of detecting infestation at crown height;
(b)
in open air, natural and urban areas, stops along the roads and railways, as well as in nurseries, garden centres, trading centres, hardwood sawmills, and other relevant sites, where the competent authorities may consider more likely to detect the specified pest;
(c)
taking into account the presence and biology of host plants, and the scientific and technical information referred to in the pest survey card.
4. The surveys shall consist of:
(a)
visual examination of host plants; and
(b)
where appropriate, collection of samples and testing of plants for planting, wood or wood packaging material.
In order to complement the visual examinations of the surveys, specifically trained sniffer dogs or trapping may be used, where appropriate.

Contingency plans
Article 4
Each Member State shall provide for the following in its contingency plan required under Article 25 of Regulation (EU) 2016/2031:
(a)
the eradication of the specified pest, as set out in Article 9;
(b)
the necessary resources to be made available, and the procedures for making those resources available, in case of a confirmed or suspected presence of the specified pest;
(c)
the provisions for the application of the special requirements regarding the introduction of host plants into, and their movement within, the Union territory, as set out in Annexes VII and VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072;
(d)
the procedures for identifying the owners of private properties, where measures are to be applied in case of detection of the specified pest.
Member States shall update annually their contingency plans, as appropriate.

Establishment of demarcated areas
Article 5
1. Where the presence of the specified pest is officially confirmed, the Member State concerned shall, without delay, establish a demarcated area for the purpose of eradication of the specified pest.
2. Following an official confirmation of the presence of the specified pest and the establishment of the demarcated area referred to in paragraph 1, the competent authorities shall, without delay, determine the level of infestation through a delimiting survey.
3. When, on the basis of the results of the survey referred to in Article 8, during at least four consecutive years it is concluded that the level of infestation by the specified pest is such that makes its eradication impossible, the competent authorities shall immediately notify to the Commission the details of the new demarcated area for containment that they intend to designate or modify, in order for such area to be included in the list of demarcated areas for containment in Annex I.
4. The demarcated area shall consist of the following:
(a)
a zone including all infested plants and all specified plants which are liable to become infested, within at least 100 m radius around infested plants (‘infested zone’);
(b)
a buffer zone:
(i)
with a width of at least 2 km beyond the boundary of the infested zone in the case of a demarcated area for the eradication of the specified pest;
(ii)
with a width of at least 4 km beyond the boundary of the infested zone, in the case of a demarcated area for containment.
5. The delimitation of the demarcated area shall take into account the scientific principles, the biology of the specified pest, the level of infestation, the particular distribution of the host plants in the area concerned, and the evidence of establishment of the specified pest.
It shall be based on a delimiting survey with a design and sampling scheme allowing to detect with a 95 % level of confidence, a 1 % of presence of infested plants. The survey shall be based on the Authority’s Guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys.
6. For the purposes of taking the eradication measures referred to in Article 9, the width of the buffer zone may be reduced to no less than 1 km where the competent authority concludes that eradication of the specified pest is possible, taking into account the circumstances of the outbreak, such as its size and location, the level of infestation or the number and distribution of host plants.
In the case of a demarcated area for containment, the width of the buffer zone may be reduced to not less than 2 km, if the competent authority considers that distance to be appropriate for the containment of the specified pest, taking into account the circumstances of the outbreak, such as its size and location, the level of infestation or the number and distribution of host plants.
Within the demarcated areas, the competent authorities shall ensure that the general public and professional operators are aware of the delimitation of the demarcated areas.

Derogation from the establishment of demarcated areas
Article 6
1. By way of derogation from Article 5, the competent authorities may choose not to establish a demarcated area, or establish it provisionally, if there is evidence that:
(a)
the specified pest has been introduced into the area with the plants, wood or wood packaging material on which it was found, and those plants, wood or wood packaging material were infested before their introduction into the area concerned and no multiplication of the specified pest has occurred or it is an isolated finding, not expected to lead to establishment; and
(b)
there is no establishment of the specified pest, and the spread or successful breeding of the specified pest is not possible due to its biology, based on the results of a specific investigation and eradication measures taken.
2. Where the competent authority uses the derogation provided for in paragraph 1, it shall:
(a)
take immediate measures to ensure the prompt eradication of the specified pest and to exclude the possibility of its spread;
(b)
during at least one life cycle of the specified pest plus one additional year, and not less than four consecutive years, survey a width of at least 1 km around the infested plants or the place where the specified pest was found and regularly and intensively, in accordance with Article 3, during at least the first flying period of the specified pest;
(c)
trace back the origin of the infestation, examining the specified plants, specified wood or wood packaging material around the finding for any sign of infestation, including by targeted destructive sampling, to discard the presence of larvae;
(d)
raise public awareness of the threat of the specified pest; and
(e)
take any other measure, which may help eradicate the specified pest, taking account of ISPM No 9(7)and applying an integrated approach in accordance with the principles set out in ISPM No 14(8).
The survey referred to in point 2(b) shall not be required in cases where the presence or emergence of adults of the specified pest in the host plant, specified wood or specified wood packaging material can unequivocally be excluded and the reasons for that conclusion have been communicated to the Commission in writing.

Abolition of the demarcated area
Article 7
1. A demarcated area may be abolished when, based on the surveys referred to in Article 8, the specified pest is not detected in the demarcated area for at least four consecutive years.
2. The demarcation may also be lifted in cases where the conditions set out in Article 6(1) are fulfilled.

Annual surveys in demarcated areas
Article 8
1. In the demarcated areas, the competent authorities shall carry out intensive annual surveys on the host plants, as referred to in Article 19(1) of Regulation (EU) 2016/2031, to detect the presence of the specified pest taking into account the information referred to in the pest survey card and in accordance with paragraphs 2 to 5 of this Article.
2. Where appropriate, the competent authority shall carry out targeted destructive sampling.
3. In the cases where sentinel plants are used, those specified plants shall be subject to inspections at least once per month. They shall be destroyed and examined, at the latest, before the specified pest is able to complete one full life cycle in the area as determined by the competent authority concerned.
4. The survey design shall take into account the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys. The survey design and sampling scheme used for detection surveys shall be able to identify with at least 95 % of confidence, a level of presence of the specified pest of 1 %.
5. The competent authority shall carry out annual surveys at appropriate times for the presence of the specified pest through inspections on host plants, within at least a width of 1 km of a treatment or processing facility of specified wood and wood packaging material and bark.

Eradication measures
Article 9
1. In order to eradicate the specified pest, the competent authorities shall take the following measures in the demarcated areas:
(a)
the immediate felling of infested plants and plants with symptoms caused by the specified pest, and the complete removal of their roots if larval galleries are observed below the root collar of the infested plant; in cases where the infested plants were found outside the flying period of the specified pest, the felling and removal shall be carried out before the start of the next flying period;
(b)
the felling of all specified plants within a radius of at least 100 m around infested plants and the examination of those specified plants for any sign of infestation;
(c)
removal, examination and safe disposal of plants felled in accordance with points (a) and (b), taking all necessary precautions to avoid spreading of the specified pest during and after felling;
(d)
removal, examination and safe disposal of the wood, bark and wood packaging material associated with the infestation, taking all necessary precautions to avoid spreading of the specified pest;
(e)
prohibition of any movement of potentially infested specified plants, specified wood and wood packaging material out of the demarcated area;
(f)
investigation of the origin of the infestation by tracing back the plants, wood, bark and other objects associated with the infestation, and examination thereof for any sign of infestation, including targeted destructive sampling;
(g)
replacement of specified plants by other non-susceptible plant species, where appropriate;
(h)
prohibition of the presence of new specified plants in the open air in the area referred to in point (b), except for places of production referred to in Annex VIII, point 17.2, of Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 and sentinel plants;
(i)
raising public awareness of the threat of the specified pest and the eradication measures set out in this Article, including the conditions regarding movement of specified plants from the demarcated area;
(j)
where necessary, specific measures to address any particularity or complication that could reasonably be expected to prevent, hinder or delay eradication, in particular those related to the accessibility and adequate eradication of all plants that are infested or suspected of infestation, irrespective of their location, public or private ownership or the person or entity responsible for them;
(k)
any other measure which may contribute to the eradication of the specified pest, in accordance with International Standard for Phytosanitary Measure (‘ISPM’) No 9(9)and to applying a systems approach in accordance with the principles set out in ISPM No 14(10).
In the case of the first subparagraph, point (a), where it is not possible to remove deeply seated stumps and surface roots, they shall be ground to at least 40 cm below surface level or covered by insect-proof material.
2. The annual official surveys within a width of at least 1 km around the places of production referred to in point 17.2 of Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 shall be based on the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys of plant pests, and the survey design and sampling scheme used shall be able to identify, with at least 99 % confidence level, a level of presence of infested plants of 1 %.
3. In case of movement of specified wood and wood packaging material and bark outside of the demarcated area and if no treatment or processing facilities are available within the demarcated area, the specified wood and wood packaging material and bark shall be moved to the nearest suitable facility outside the demarcated area, to ensure immediate treatment or processing in accordance with points 30-32 of Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072. That movement shall be carried out under official control and under closed conditions, in such a manner to ensure that the specified pest cannot spread.
The responsible official body shall carry out annual surveys at appropriate times for the presence of the specified pest through inspections on host plants within at least a width of 1 km of that treatment or processing facility.
4. By way of derogation from paragraph 1, first subparagraph, point (b), where a competent authority concludes that felling is inappropriate for a limited number of individual plants, due to their particular social, cultural or environmental value, those individual plants shall be subject to a monthly individual examination for any sign of infestation and measures alternative to felling ensuring high level of protection shall be taken to prevent any possible spread of the specified pest from those plants.

Containment measures
Article 10
1. In the infested zones of the demarcated areas for containment, as listed in Annex I, the competent authorities shall take all of the following measures:
(a)
felling of infested plants and plants with symptoms caused by the specified pest, and complete removal of their roots if larval galleries are observed below the root collar of the infested plant;
(b)
removal, examination and safe disposal of plants felled in accordance with point (a), taking the necessary precautions to avoid spreading of the specified pest during and after felling;
(c)
prohibition of any movement of potentially infested specified plants, specified wood and wood packaging material out of the demarcated area;
(d)
where appropriate, replacement of specified plants by other non-susceptible plants;
(e)
prohibition of the presence in the infested zone of new specified plants in the open air, except for places of production referred to in point 17.2 of Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 and planting of sentinel plants;
(f)
raising public awareness of the threat of the specified pest and the containment measures set out in this Article, including the conditions regarding movement of specified plants out of the demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5;
(g)
where necessary, specific measures to address any other issue or complication that could reasonably be expected to prevent, hinder or delay containment, in particular those related to the accessibility and adequate felling and destruction of all plants that are infested or suspected of infestation, irrespective of their location, ownership or the person responsible for them;
(h)
any other measure, which may help contain the specified pest.
In the case of the first subparagraph, point (a), felling activities shall start immediately, however in cases where the infested plants were found outside the flying period of the specified pest, the felling and removal shall be carried out before the start of the next flying period. Where it is not possible to remove deeply seated stumps and surface roots, they shall be ground to at least 40 cm below surface level or covered by insect-proof material.
2. The annual official surveys within a width of at least 1 km around the places of production referred to in point 17.2 of Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 shall be based on the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys of plant pests, and the survey design and sampling scheme used shall be able to identify, with at least 99 % confidence level, a level of presence of infested plants of 1 %.
The responsible official body shall carry out annual surveys at appropriate times for the presence of the specified pest through inspections on host plants within at least a width of 1 km of that treatment or processing facility.
3. In case of movement of specified wood and wood packaging material and bark outside of the demarcated area and from the infested zone into the buffer zone, if no treatment or processing facilities are available within the demarcated area, the specified wood, wood packaging material and bark shall be moved to the nearest suitable facility outside the demarcated area to ensure immediate treatment or processing in accordance with points 30-32 of Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072. That movement shall be carried out under official control and under closed conditions, in such a manner to ensure that the specified pest cannot spread.
4. Where the presence of the specified pest has been officially confirmed in the buffer zone, Articles 17 and 18 of Regulation (EU) 2016/2031 shall apply accordingly.

Reporting obligations
Article 11
1. Member States shall, by 30 April of each year, submit to the Commission and to the other Member States a report on the measures taken during the preceding calendar year pursuant to this Regulation and on the results of the measures provided for in Articles 3 to 10.
That report shall include:
(a)
the number of samples taken in accordance with Article 8(2);
(b)
the reasons for using the derogation provided for in Article 9(4), and the measures taken as a result of it.
2. The results of the surveys carried out pursuant to Article 8 shall be submitted to the Commission using one of the templates set out in Annex II.

Repeal of Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893
Article 12
Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 is repealed.

Entry into force and application
Article 13
This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.
Τhe following provisions shall apply from 1 January 2027:
(a)
Article 3(2);
(b)
Article 5(5), second subparagraph;
(c)
Article 8(4);
(d)
Article 9(2);
(e)
Article 10(2).

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2016/2031 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26 October 2016 on protective measures against pests of plants, amending Regulations (EU) No 228/2013, (EU) No 652/2014 and (EU) No 1143/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council and repealing Council Directives 69/464/EEC, 74/647/EEC, 93/85/EEC, 98/57/EC, 2000/29/EC, 2006/91/EC and 2007/33/EC(1), and in particular Article 28(1) and (2) thereof,
(1) Commission Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893(2)establishes measures to prevent the introduction into and the spread within the Union ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky) (‘the specified pest’).
(2) Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072(3)lays down, in Part B of its Annex II, the list of Union quarantine pests known to occur in the Union territory.
(3) The specified pest is included in the list contained in Part B of Annex II to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, as it is known to occur in certain parts of the Union territory. It is a polyphagous pest reported to have an impact on many different plant species in the Union territory.
(4) The specified pest is also listed in the Annex to Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2019/1702(4)as a priority pest.
(5) Plants which are hosts of the specified pest (‘host plants’) should be subjected to surveys in order to ensure the earliest possible detection of the specified pest.
(6) Several host plants could be used to attract the specified pest and thus delimit its presence in case of finding. In this respect, they should be referred to as ‘sentinel plants’.
(7) Host plants, which in the past have been found to be infested by the specified pest in the Union territory, are most likely to contribute to its spread. They should be referred to as ‘specified plants’. Moreover, they should be subjected to certain measures for eradication or containment, as applicable, in the demarcated areas.
(8) In order to ensure the early detection and eradication of the specified pest in the Union territory, where the specified pest is not known to occur, Member States should carry out annual surveys. Such surveys should cover all the host plants, in order to be most effective. Those surveys should be based on the scientific advice of the European Food Safety Authority (‘the Authority’) contained in the General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys for plant pests(5).
(9) Moreover, in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2016/2031, each Member State is to draw up and keep up to date a contingency plan for each priority pest which is able to enter and become established in its territory. Based on the experience from previous outbreaks, it is necessary to adopt specific rules implementing Article 25 of Regulation (EU) 2016/2031 for drawing up a comprehensive contingency plan in case of findings of the specified pest in the Union.
(10) To prevent the spread of the specified pest in the Union territory and bearing in mind its spread capacity, the width of a buffer zone should be at least 2 km beyond the boundaries of the infested zone.
(11) In order to ensure the immediate application of eradication measures and to prevent the further spread of the specified pest to the rest of the Union territory, it is necessary to set out rules concerning the annual surveys of the demarcated areas. Those rules should be based on the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys for plant pests in order to adapt to the most updated scientific and technical evidence.
(12) In order to ensure a proportionate response to the respective phytosanitary risk from the specified pest, it is necessary to set out rules for the reduction of the size of the demarcated areas, derogations from their establishment and their abolition. Specific conditions should be established for the application of those rules, to ensure that the specified pest does not spread to the rest of the Union territory.
(13) In cases of isolated findings of the specified pest in the Union territory, the establishment of a demarcated area should not be required if the specified pest can be eliminated from the respective plants, and if there is evidence that those plants were infested before their introduction into the area, or that the concrete finding is not expected to lead to establishment of the specified pest. This is the most proportionate approach, as long as the surveys carried out in the area concerned confirm the absence of the specified pest. However, in very specific cases, where the emergence and spread of the specified pest in the Union territory can unequivocally be excluded and the respective risk is considered negligeable, such surveillance is not justified and thus should not be required.
(14) In certain areas of the Union territory, the eradication of the specified pest is no longer possible. The Member States concerned should therefore be allowed to apply measures for the containment of that pest within those areas, instead of its eradication.
(15) The measures in the demarcated areas under containment should be less stringent than the measures for eradication but they should ensure a diligent survey approach and taking precautionary actions, mainly in the respective buffer zones, in order to prevent the spread of the specified pest to the rest of the Union territory.
(16) Bearing in mind that the measures concerning the demarcated areas for containment are less stringent, the width of the buffer zone should be increased to at least 4 km to ensure that the specified pest does not spread outside those demarcated areas.
(17) Member States should notify to the Commission and to the other Member States every demarcated area for containment that they intend to designate or modify, in order for the Commission to obtain an overview of the spread of the specified pest in the Union territory and to be able to include the respective area in a list of demarcated areas for containment in Annex I to this Regulation.
(18) In order to ensure the immediate removal of the infested plants and to prevent the further spread of the specified pest to the rest of the Union territory, the surveys of the buffer zones should be carried out annually at the most appropriate time of the year and with sufficient intensity, taking into account the possibility for the competent authorities to further monitor the host plants in the infested zones for containment.
(19) In order to prevent the possible spread of the specified pest outside demarcated areas, the intensity of the annual surveys around the places of production in the demarcated areas should be more intensive than in the rest of these areas.
(20) The measures contained in Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 concerning the introduction into, and movement within, the Union territory of the specified plants, are included in Annexes VII and VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072, while its measures concerning surveys, eradication and containment of the specified pest are updated and replaced by the measures of this Regulation.
(21) Therefore, Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 should be repealed and replaced by this Regulation.
(22) The provisions of this Regulation concerning surveys on the basis of the Authority’s Pest Survey Card onAnoplophora glabripennis(6)(‘pest survey card’) and the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys should apply from 1 January 2027, in order to allow sufficient time for the competent authorities to plan, prepare the design and allocate sufficient resources for such surveys.
(23) The measures provided for in this Regulation are in accordance with the opinion of the Standing Committee on Plants, Animals, Food and Feed,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Subject matter

This Regulation sets out measures to prevent the establishment and spread within the Union territory ofAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky), measures for its eradication, where it is found present in that territory, and measures for its containment, when eradication is no longer possible.

Definitions

For the purposes of this Regulation, the following definitions apply:
(1)
‘specified pest’ meansAnoplophora glabripennis(Motschulsky);
(2)
‘specified plants’ means plants for planting, that have a stem or root collar diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.;
(3)
‘host plants’ means plants for planting, that have a stem or root collar diameter of 1 cm or more at their thickest point, ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Albiziaspp., Alnusspp.,Betulaspp.,Carpinusspp.,Celtisspp.,Cercidiphyllumspp.,Corylusspp.,Elaeagnusspp.,Fagusspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Gleditsiaspp., Hibiscusspp.,Koelreuteriaspp.,Malusspp.,Meliaspp.,Morusspp.,Platanusspp.,Populusspp.,Prunusspp.,Pyrusspp.,Ostryaspp., Quercus rubra, Robiniaspp.,Salixspp.,Sophoraspp.,Sorbusspp.,Tiliaspp. andUlmusspp.;
(4)
‘specified wood and wood packaging material’ means wood and wood packaging material ofAcerspp.,Aesculusspp.,Betulaspp.,Fraxinusspp.,Populusspp.,Salixspp. andUlmusspp.;
(5)
‘sentinel plants’ means specified plants specifically planted to support the early detection of the specified pest and used for surveys;
(6)
‘demarcated area for containment’ means an area, where the specified pest cannot be eradicated, listed in Annex I.

Surveys of the Union territory outside of demarcated areas

1. Competent authorities shall conduct risk-based annual surveys of the host plants in the areas of their territories, where the specified pest is not known to occur, for the presence of that pest.
2. The design and sampling scheme of those surveys shall allow to detect, within the Member State concerned, with a sufficient level of confidence, a low level of presence of infested plants.
They shall be based on the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys for plant pests.
3. The surveys shall be carried out:
(a)
by using techniques capable of detecting infestation at crown height;
(b)
in open air, natural and urban areas, stops along the roads and railways, as well as in nurseries, garden centres, trading centres, hardwood sawmills, and other relevant sites, where the competent authorities may consider more likely to detect the specified pest;
(c)
taking into account the presence and biology of host plants, and the scientific and technical information referred to in the pest survey card.
4. The surveys shall consist of:
(a)
visual examination of host plants; and
(b)
where appropriate, collection of samples and testing of plants for planting, wood or wood packaging material.
In order to complement the visual examinations of the surveys, specifically trained sniffer dogs or trapping may be used, where appropriate.

Contingency plans

Each Member State shall provide for the following in its contingency plan required under Article 25 of Regulation (EU) 2016/2031:
(a)
the eradication of the specified pest, as set out in Article 9;
(b)
the necessary resources to be made available, and the procedures for making those resources available, in case of a confirmed or suspected presence of the specified pest;
(c)
the provisions for the application of the special requirements regarding the introduction of host plants into, and their movement within, the Union territory, as set out in Annexes VII and VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072;
(d)
the procedures for identifying the owners of private properties, where measures are to be applied in case of detection of the specified pest.
Member States shall update annually their contingency plans, as appropriate.

Establishment of demarcated areas

1. Where the presence of the specified pest is officially confirmed, the Member State concerned shall, without delay, establish a demarcated area for the purpose of eradication of the specified pest.
2. Following an official confirmation of the presence of the specified pest and the establishment of the demarcated area referred to in paragraph 1, the competent authorities shall, without delay, determine the level of infestation through a delimiting survey.
3. When, on the basis of the results of the survey referred to in Article 8, during at least four consecutive years it is concluded that the level of infestation by the specified pest is such that makes its eradication impossible, the competent authorities shall immediately notify to the Commission the details of the new demarcated area for containment that they intend to designate or modify, in order for such area to be included in the list of demarcated areas for containment in Annex I.
4. The demarcated area shall consist of the following:
(a)
a zone including all infested plants and all specified plants which are liable to become infested, within at least 100 m radius around infested plants (‘infested zone’);
(b)
a buffer zone:
(i)
with a width of at least 2 km beyond the boundary of the infested zone in the case of a demarcated area for the eradication of the specified pest;
(ii)
with a width of at least 4 km beyond the boundary of the infested zone, in the case of a demarcated area for containment.
5. The delimitation of the demarcated area shall take into account the scientific principles, the biology of the specified pest, the level of infestation, the particular distribution of the host plants in the area concerned, and the evidence of establishment of the specified pest.
It shall be based on a delimiting survey with a design and sampling scheme allowing to detect with a 95 % level of confidence, a 1 % of presence of infested plants. The survey shall be based on the Authority’s Guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys.
6. For the purposes of taking the eradication measures referred to in Article 9, the width of the buffer zone may be reduced to no less than 1 km where the competent authority concludes that eradication of the specified pest is possible, taking into account the circumstances of the outbreak, such as its size and location, the level of infestation or the number and distribution of host plants.
In the case of a demarcated area for containment, the width of the buffer zone may be reduced to not less than 2 km, if the competent authority considers that distance to be appropriate for the containment of the specified pest, taking into account the circumstances of the outbreak, such as its size and location, the level of infestation or the number and distribution of host plants.
Within the demarcated areas, the competent authorities shall ensure that the general public and professional operators are aware of the delimitation of the demarcated areas.

Derogation from the establishment of demarcated areas

1. By way of derogation from Article 5, the competent authorities may choose not to establish a demarcated area, or establish it provisionally, if there is evidence that:
(a)
the specified pest has been introduced into the area with the plants, wood or wood packaging material on which it was found, and those plants, wood or wood packaging material were infested before their introduction into the area concerned and no multiplication of the specified pest has occurred or it is an isolated finding, not expected to lead to establishment; and
(b)
there is no establishment of the specified pest, and the spread or successful breeding of the specified pest is not possible due to its biology, based on the results of a specific investigation and eradication measures taken.
2. Where the competent authority uses the derogation provided for in paragraph 1, it shall:
(a)
take immediate measures to ensure the prompt eradication of the specified pest and to exclude the possibility of its spread;
(b)
during at least one life cycle of the specified pest plus one additional year, and not less than four consecutive years, survey a width of at least 1 km around the infested plants or the place where the specified pest was found and regularly and intensively, in accordance with Article 3, during at least the first flying period of the specified pest;
(c)
trace back the origin of the infestation, examining the specified plants, specified wood or wood packaging material around the finding for any sign of infestation, including by targeted destructive sampling, to discard the presence of larvae;
(d)
raise public awareness of the threat of the specified pest; and
(e)
take any other measure, which may help eradicate the specified pest, taking account of ISPM No 9(7)and applying an integrated approach in accordance with the principles set out in ISPM No 14(8).
The survey referred to in point 2(b) shall not be required in cases where the presence or emergence of adults of the specified pest in the host plant, specified wood or specified wood packaging material can unequivocally be excluded and the reasons for that conclusion have been communicated to the Commission in writing.

Abolition of the demarcated area

1. A demarcated area may be abolished when, based on the surveys referred to in Article 8, the specified pest is not detected in the demarcated area for at least four consecutive years.
2. The demarcation may also be lifted in cases where the conditions set out in Article 6(1) are fulfilled.

Annual surveys in demarcated areas

1. In the demarcated areas, the competent authorities shall carry out intensive annual surveys on the host plants, as referred to in Article 19(1) of Regulation (EU) 2016/2031, to detect the presence of the specified pest taking into account the information referred to in the pest survey card and in accordance with paragraphs 2 to 5 of this Article.
2. Where appropriate, the competent authority shall carry out targeted destructive sampling.
3. In the cases where sentinel plants are used, those specified plants shall be subject to inspections at least once per month. They shall be destroyed and examined, at the latest, before the specified pest is able to complete one full life cycle in the area as determined by the competent authority concerned.
4. The survey design shall take into account the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys. The survey design and sampling scheme used for detection surveys shall be able to identify with at least 95 % of confidence, a level of presence of the specified pest of 1 %.
5. The competent authority shall carry out annual surveys at appropriate times for the presence of the specified pest through inspections on host plants, within at least a width of 1 km of a treatment or processing facility of specified wood and wood packaging material and bark.

Eradication measures

1. In order to eradicate the specified pest, the competent authorities shall take the following measures in the demarcated areas:
(a)
the immediate felling of infested plants and plants with symptoms caused by the specified pest, and the complete removal of their roots if larval galleries are observed below the root collar of the infested plant; in cases where the infested plants were found outside the flying period of the specified pest, the felling and removal shall be carried out before the start of the next flying period;
(b)
the felling of all specified plants within a radius of at least 100 m around infested plants and the examination of those specified plants for any sign of infestation;
(c)
removal, examination and safe disposal of plants felled in accordance with points (a) and (b), taking all necessary precautions to avoid spreading of the specified pest during and after felling;
(d)
removal, examination and safe disposal of the wood, bark and wood packaging material associated with the infestation, taking all necessary precautions to avoid spreading of the specified pest;
(e)
prohibition of any movement of potentially infested specified plants, specified wood and wood packaging material out of the demarcated area;
(f)
investigation of the origin of the infestation by tracing back the plants, wood, bark and other objects associated with the infestation, and examination thereof for any sign of infestation, including targeted destructive sampling;
(g)
replacement of specified plants by other non-susceptible plant species, where appropriate;
(h)
prohibition of the presence of new specified plants in the open air in the area referred to in point (b), except for places of production referred to in Annex VIII, point 17.2, of Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 and sentinel plants;
(i)
raising public awareness of the threat of the specified pest and the eradication measures set out in this Article, including the conditions regarding movement of specified plants from the demarcated area;
(j)
where necessary, specific measures to address any particularity or complication that could reasonably be expected to prevent, hinder or delay eradication, in particular those related to the accessibility and adequate eradication of all plants that are infested or suspected of infestation, irrespective of their location, public or private ownership or the person or entity responsible for them;
(k)
any other measure which may contribute to the eradication of the specified pest, in accordance with International Standard for Phytosanitary Measure (‘ISPM’) No 9(9)and to applying a systems approach in accordance with the principles set out in ISPM No 14(10).
In the case of the first subparagraph, point (a), where it is not possible to remove deeply seated stumps and surface roots, they shall be ground to at least 40 cm below surface level or covered by insect-proof material.
2. The annual official surveys within a width of at least 1 km around the places of production referred to in point 17.2 of Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 shall be based on the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys of plant pests, and the survey design and sampling scheme used shall be able to identify, with at least 99 % confidence level, a level of presence of infested plants of 1 %.
3. In case of movement of specified wood and wood packaging material and bark outside of the demarcated area and if no treatment or processing facilities are available within the demarcated area, the specified wood and wood packaging material and bark shall be moved to the nearest suitable facility outside the demarcated area, to ensure immediate treatment or processing in accordance with points 30-32 of Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072. That movement shall be carried out under official control and under closed conditions, in such a manner to ensure that the specified pest cannot spread.
The responsible official body shall carry out annual surveys at appropriate times for the presence of the specified pest through inspections on host plants within at least a width of 1 km of that treatment or processing facility.
4. By way of derogation from paragraph 1, first subparagraph, point (b), where a competent authority concludes that felling is inappropriate for a limited number of individual plants, due to their particular social, cultural or environmental value, those individual plants shall be subject to a monthly individual examination for any sign of infestation and measures alternative to felling ensuring high level of protection shall be taken to prevent any possible spread of the specified pest from those plants.

Containment measures

1. In the infested zones of the demarcated areas for containment, as listed in Annex I, the competent authorities shall take all of the following measures:
(a)
felling of infested plants and plants with symptoms caused by the specified pest, and complete removal of their roots if larval galleries are observed below the root collar of the infested plant;
(b)
removal, examination and safe disposal of plants felled in accordance with point (a), taking the necessary precautions to avoid spreading of the specified pest during and after felling;
(c)
prohibition of any movement of potentially infested specified plants, specified wood and wood packaging material out of the demarcated area;
(d)
where appropriate, replacement of specified plants by other non-susceptible plants;
(e)
prohibition of the presence in the infested zone of new specified plants in the open air, except for places of production referred to in point 17.2 of Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 and planting of sentinel plants;
(f)
raising public awareness of the threat of the specified pest and the containment measures set out in this Article, including the conditions regarding movement of specified plants out of the demarcated area established pursuant to Article 5;
(g)
where necessary, specific measures to address any other issue or complication that could reasonably be expected to prevent, hinder or delay containment, in particular those related to the accessibility and adequate felling and destruction of all plants that are infested or suspected of infestation, irrespective of their location, ownership or the person responsible for them;
(h)
any other measure, which may help contain the specified pest.
In the case of the first subparagraph, point (a), felling activities shall start immediately, however in cases where the infested plants were found outside the flying period of the specified pest, the felling and removal shall be carried out before the start of the next flying period. Where it is not possible to remove deeply seated stumps and surface roots, they shall be ground to at least 40 cm below surface level or covered by insect-proof material.
2. The annual official surveys within a width of at least 1 km around the places of production referred to in point 17.2 of Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072 shall be based on the Authority’s General guidelines for statistically sound and risk-based surveys of plant pests, and the survey design and sampling scheme used shall be able to identify, with at least 99 % confidence level, a level of presence of infested plants of 1 %.
The responsible official body shall carry out annual surveys at appropriate times for the presence of the specified pest through inspections on host plants within at least a width of 1 km of that treatment or processing facility.
3. In case of movement of specified wood and wood packaging material and bark outside of the demarcated area and from the infested zone into the buffer zone, if no treatment or processing facilities are available within the demarcated area, the specified wood, wood packaging material and bark shall be moved to the nearest suitable facility outside the demarcated area to ensure immediate treatment or processing in accordance with points 30-32 of Annex VIII to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/2072. That movement shall be carried out under official control and under closed conditions, in such a manner to ensure that the specified pest cannot spread.
4. Where the presence of the specified pest has been officially confirmed in the buffer zone, Articles 17 and 18 of Regulation (EU) 2016/2031 shall apply accordingly.

Reporting obligations

1. Member States shall, by 30 April of each year, submit to the Commission and to the other Member States a report on the measures taken during the preceding calendar year pursuant to this Regulation and on the results of the measures provided for in Articles 3 to 10.
That report shall include:
(a)
the number of samples taken in accordance with Article 8(2);
(b)
the reasons for using the derogation provided for in Article 9(4), and the measures taken as a result of it.
2. The results of the surveys carried out pursuant to Article 8 shall be submitted to the Commission using one of the templates set out in Annex II.

Repeal of Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893

Implementing Decision (EU) 2015/893 is repealed.

Entry into force and application

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.
Τhe following provisions shall apply from 1 January 2027:
(a)
Article 3(2);
(b)
Article 5(5), second subparagraph;
(c)
Article 8(4);
(d)
Article 9(2);
(e)
Article 10(2).

ITALY

ANNEX IDemarcated areas for containment
Europhyt number of demarcated area (DA) | Zone of DA | Region | Municipalities or other administrative/geographic delimitations
206 | Infested zone | Marche | Part of the following municipalities: Ostra, Senigallia, Trecastelli, Corinaldo, Ostra Vetere, Belvedere Ostrense
Buffer zone | Part of the following municipalities: Ostra, Senigallia, Trecastelli, Corinaldo, Ostra Vetere, Belvedere Ostrense, Morro d’Alba, Montecarotto
358 | Infested zone | Marche | The whole territory of the following municipalities: Monte Urano, Rapagnano, Magliano di Tenna, Belmonte Piceno, Grottazzolina, Monte Vidon Corrado.Part of the following municipalities: Sant’Elpidio a Mare, Torre San Patrizio, Monte San Pietrangeli, Francavilla d’Ete, Montegiorgio, Falerone, Servigliano, Montottone, Monte Gilberto, Ponzano di Fermo, Fermo
Buffer zone | The whole territory of Porto San GiorgioPart of the following municipalities: Porto Sant’Elpidio, Sant’Elpidio a Mare, Montegranaro, Torre San Patrizio, Monte San Pietrangeli, Monte San Giusto, Corridonia, Francavilla d’Ete, Mogliano, Montegiorgio, Massa Fermana, Montappone,, Monsampietro Morico, Loro Piceno, Sant’Angelo in Pontano, Falerone, Penna San Giovanni, Servigliano, Monteleone di Fermo, Monsampietro Morico, Montottone, Monte Vidon Combatte, Monte Giberto, Petritoli, Ponzano di Fermo, Fermo, Monterubbiano, Lapedona, Santa Vittoria in Matenano.
866 | Infested zone | Marche | The whole territory of the following municipalities: Civitanova Marche, Montecosaro.Part of the following municipalities: Morrovalle, Montegranaro, Sant’Elpidio a Mare, Porto Sant’Elpidio.
Buffer zone | Part of the following municipalities: Porto Sant’Elpidio, Sant’Elpidio a Mare, Potenza Picena, Montelupone, Morrovalle, Monte San Giusto, Montegranaro.

PART A

ANNEX IITemplates for the reporting of the results of the surveys carried out pursuant to Article 81. Template for the reporting of the results of annual surveys

1.Description of the Demarcated Area (DA) | 1. | Description of the Demarcated Area (DA) | 2.Initial size of DA (ha) | 2. | Initial size of DA (ha) | 3.Updated size of DA (ha) | 3. | Updated size of DA (ha) | 4.Approach (eradication or containment) | 4. | Approach (eradication or containment) | 5.Zone | 5. | Zone | 6.Survey sites | 6. | Survey sites | 7.Risk areas identified | 7. | Risk areas identified | 8.Risk areas inspected | 8. | Risk areas inspected | 9.Plant material / Commodity | 9. | Plant material / Commodity | 10.List of host plant species | 10. | List of host plant species | 11.Timing | 11. | Timing | 12.Survey details | 12. | Survey details | 13.No of symptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined | 13. | No of symptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined | i: | Total | ii: | Positive | iii: | Negative | iv: | Undetermined | 14.No of asymptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined | 14. | No of asymptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined | i: | Total | ii: | Positive | iii: | Negative | iv: | Undetermined | 15.Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715(1) | 15. | Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715(1) | 16.Comments | 16. | Comments
1. | Description of the Demarcated Area (DA)
2. | Initial size of DA (ha)
3. | Updated size of DA (ha)
4. | Approach (eradication or containment)
5. | Zone
6. | Survey sites
7. | Risk areas identified
8. | Risk areas inspected
9. | Plant material / Commodity
10. | List of host plant species
11. | Timing
12. | Survey details
13. | No of symptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined | i: | Total | ii: | Positive | iii: | Negative | iv: | Undetermined
i: | Total
ii: | Positive
iii: | Negative
iv: | Undetermined
14. | No of asymptomatic samples analysed:i:Totalii:Positiveiii:Negativeiv:Undetermined | i: | Total | ii: | Positive | iii: | Negative | iv: | Undetermined
i: | Total
ii: | Positive
iii: | Negative
iv: | Undetermined
15. | Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715(1)
16. | Comments
A)Number of visual examinations | A) | Number of visual examinations
A) | Number of visual examinations
B)Total number of samples taken | B) | Total number of samples taken
B) | Total number of samples taken
C)Type of traps (or other alternative method (e.g. sweep nets)) | C) | Type of traps (or other alternative method (e.g. sweep nets))
C) | Type of traps (or other alternative method (e.g. sweep nets))
D)Number of traps (or other capturing method) | D) | Number of traps (or other capturing method)
D) | Number of traps (or other capturing method)
E)Number of trapping sites, when different from data reported in (D) | E) | Number of trapping sites, when different from data reported in (D)
E) | Number of trapping sites, when different from data reported in (D)
F)Type of tests (e.g. microscopic identification, PCR, ELISA) | F) | Type of tests (e.g. microscopic identification, PCR, ELISA)
F) | Type of tests (e.g. microscopic identification, PCR, ELISA)
G)Total number of tests | G) | Total number of tests
G) | Total number of tests
H)Other measures (e.g. sniffer dogs, drones, helicopters, awareness raising campaigns) | H) | Other measures (e.g. sniffer dogs, drones, helicopters, awareness raising campaigns)
H) | Other measures (e.g. sniffer dogs, drones, helicopters, awareness raising campaigns)
Name | Date of establishment | Description | Number | I)Number of other measures | I) | Number of other measures | Number | Date
I) | Number of other measures
A | B | C | D | E | F | G | H | I | i | ii | iii | iv | i | ii | iii | iv
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| | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | 2. Instructions how to fill in the template
If this template is filled, the template in Part B of this Annex is not to be filled.
For column 1: Indicate the name of the geographical area, outbreak number or any information that allows identification of this demarcated area (DA) and the date when it was established.
For column 2: Indicate the size of the DA before the start of the survey.
For column 3: Indicate the size of the DA after the survey.
For column 4: Indicate the approach: Eradication or Containment. Please, include as many rows as necessary, depending on the number of DA per pest and the approaches these areas are subject to.
For column 5: Indicate the zone of the DA where the survey was carried out, including as many rows as necessary: Infected (IZ) or buffer zone (BZ), using separate rows. When applicable, indicate the area of the IZ where the survey was carried out (e.g. last 20 km adjacent to the BZ, around nurseries) in different rows.
For column 6: Indicate the number and the description of the survey sites, by choosing one of the following entries for the description:

1. | Open air (production area): 1.1. field (arable, pasture); 1.2. orchard/vineyard; 1.3. nursery; 1.4. forest;
2. | Open air (other): 2.1. private garden; 2.2. public sites; 2.3. conservation area; 2.4. wild plants in areas other than conservation areas; 2.5. other, with specification of the particular case (e.g. garden centre, commercial sites that uses wood packaging material, wood industry, wetlands, irrigation and drainage network);
3. | Physically closed conditions: 3.1. greenhouse; 3.2. private site, other than greenhouse; 3.3. public site, other than greenhouse; 3.4. other, with specification of the particular case (e.g. garden centre, commercial sites that uses wood packaging material, wood industry).For column 7: Indicate, which are the risk areas identified based on the biology of the pest(s), presence of host plants, eco-climatic conditions and risk locations.
For column 8: Indicate the risk areas included in the survey, from those identified in column 7.
For column 9: Indicate plants, fruits, seeds, soil, packaging material, wood, machinery, vehicles, water, other, specifying the specific case.
For column 10: Indicate the list of plant species/genera surveyed using one row per plant species/genera.
For column 11: Indicate the months of the year when the survey was carried out.
For column 12: Indicate the details of the survey, depending on the specific legal requirements of each pest. Indicate with N/A when the information of certain column is not applicable.
For columns 13 and 14: Indicate the results, if applicable, providing the information available in the corresponding columns. ‘Undetermined’ are those analysed samples for which no result was obtained due to different factors (e.g. below detection level, unprocessed sample-not identified, old).
For column 15: Indicate the outbreak notifications of the year when the survey took place for findings in the BZ. The outbreak notification number does not need to be included when the competent authority has decided that the finding is one of the cases referred to in Article 14(2), Article 15(2) or Article 16 of Regulation (EU) 2016/2031. In this case, indicate the reason for not providing this information in column 16 (‘Comments’).
PART B1. Template for the reporting of the results of statistically-based annual surveys

1.Description of the Demarcated Area (DA) | 1. | Description of the Demarcated Area (DA) | 2.Initial size of DA (ha) | 2. | Initial size of DA (ha) | 3.Updated size of DA (ha) | 3. | Updated size of DA (ha) | 4.Approach | 4. | Approach | 5.Zone | 5. | Zone | 6.Survey sites | 6. | Survey sites | 7.Timing | 7. | Timing | A.Survey definition (input parameters for RiBESS+) | A. | Survey definition (input parameters for RiBESS+) | B.Sampling effort | B. | Sampling effort | C.Survey results | C. | Survey results | 25.Comments | 25. | Comments
1. | Description of the Demarcated Area (DA)
2. | Initial size of DA (ha)
3. | Updated size of DA (ha)
4. | Approach
5. | Zone
6. | Survey sites
7. | Timing
A. | Survey definition (input parameters for RiBESS+)
B. | Sampling effort
C. | Survey results
25. | Comments
8.Target population | 8. | Target population | 9.Epidemiological units | 9. | Epidemiological units | 10.Detection methods | 10. | Detection methods | 11.Sampling effectiveness | 11. | Sampling effectiveness | 12.Method sensitivity | 12. | Method sensitivity | 13.Risk factors (activities, locations and areas) | 13. | Risk factors (activities, locations and areas) | 14.Number of epidemiological units inspected | 14. | Number of epidemiological units inspected | 15.Number of visual examinations | 15. | Number of visual examinations | 16.Number of samples | 16. | Number of samples | 17.Number of traps | 17. | Number of traps | 18.Number of trapping sites | 18. | Number of trapping sites | 19.Number of tests | 19. | Number of tests | 20.Number of other measures | 20. | Number of other measures | 21.Results | 21. | Results | 22.Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715 | 22. | Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715 | 23.Achieved Confidence level | 23. | Achieved Confidence level | 24.Design prevalence | 24. | Design prevalence
8. | Target population
9. | Epidemiological units
10. | Detection methods
11. | Sampling effectiveness
12. | Method sensitivity
13. | Risk factors (activities, locations and areas)
14. | Number of epidemiological units inspected
15. | Number of visual examinations
16. | Number of samples
17. | Number of traps
18. | Number of trapping sites
19. | Number of tests
20. | Number of other measures
21. | Results
22. | Notification number of the outbreaks notified, as applicable, in accordance with Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715
23. | Achieved Confidence level
24. | Design prevalence
Name | Date of establishment | Description | Number | Host species | Area (ha or other more relevant unit) | Inspection units | Description | Units | Visual examinations | Trapping | Testing | Other methods | Risk factor | Risk levels | Number of locations | Relative risks | Proportion of the host population | Positive | Negative | Undetermined | Number | Date
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| | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | 2. Instructions on how to fill in the template
Explain the underlying assumptions for the survey design per pest. Summarise and justify:

— | the target population, epidemiological unit and inspection units;
— | the detection method and method sensitivity;
— | the risk factor(s), indicating the risk levels and corresponding relative risks and proportions of host plant population.For column 1: Indicate the name of the geographical area, outbreak number or any information that allows identification of this demarcated area (DA) and the date when it was established.
For column 2: Indicate the size of the DA before the start of the survey.
For column 3: Indicate the size of the DA after the survey.
For column 4: Indicate the approach: Eradication or Containment. Please, include as many rows as necessary, depending on the number of DA per pest and the approaches these areas are subject to.
For column 5: Indicate the zone of the DA where the survey was carried out, including as many rows as necessary: Infected zone (IZ) or buffer zone (BZ), using separate rows. Where applicable, indicate the area of the IZ where the survey was carried out (e.g. last 20 km adjacent to the BZ, around nurseries) in different rows.
For column 6: Indicate the number and the description of the survey sites, by choosing one of the following entries for the description:

1. | Open air (production area): 1.1 field (arable, pasture); 1.2. orchard/vineyard; 1.3. nursery; 1.4. forest;
2. | Open air (other): 2.1. private gardens; 2.2. public sites; 2.3. conservation area; 2.4. wild plants in areas other than conservation areas; 2.5. other, with specification of the particular case (e.g. garden centre, commercial sites that uses wood packaging material, wood industry, wetlands, irrigation and drainage network.);
3. | Physically closed conditions: 3.1. greenhouse; 3.2. private site, other than greenhouse; 3.3. public site, other than greenhouse; 3.4. other, with specification of the particular case (e.g. garden centre, commercial sites that uses wood packaging material, wood industry).For column 7: Indicate the months of the year when the surveys were carried out.
For column 8: Indicate the chosen target population providing accordingly the list of host species/genera and area covered. The target population is defined as the ensemble of inspection units. Its size is defined typically for agricultural areas as hectares, but could be lots, fields, greenhouses etc. Please, justify the choice made in the underlying assumptions. Indicate the inspection units surveyed. ‘Inspection unit’ means plants, plant parts, commodities, materials, pest vectors that had been scrutinised for identifying and detecting the pests.
For column 9: Indicate the epidemiological units surveyed, indicating its description and unit of measurement. ‘Epidemiological unit’ means a homogeneous area where the interactions between the pest, the host plants and the abiotic and biotic factors and conditions would result into the same epidemiology, should the pest be present. The epidemiological units are a subdivision of the target population that are homogenous in terms of epidemiology with at least one host plant. In some cases the whole host population in a region/area/country may be defined as epidemiological unit. They could be Nomenclature of territorial units for statistics (NUTS) regions, urban areas, forests, rose gardens or farms, or hectares. The choice of the epidemiological units has to be justified in the underlying assumptions.
For column 10: Indicate the methods used during the survey including the number of activities in each case, depending on the specific legal requirements of each pest. Indicate with N/A when the information of certain column is not available.
For column 11: Indicate an estimation of the sampling effectiveness. Sampling effectiveness means the probability of selecting infected plant parts from an infected plant. For vectors, it is the effectiveness of the method to capture a positive vector when it is present in the survey area. For soil, it is the effectiveness of selecting a soil sample containing the pest when the pest is present in the survey area.
For column 12: ‘Method sensitivity’ means the probability of a method to correctly detect pest presence. The method sensitivity is defined as the probability that a truly positive host tests positive. It is the multiplication of the sampling effectiveness (i.e. probability of selecting infected plant parts from an infected plant) by the diagnostic sensitivity (characterised by the visual inspection and/or laboratory test used in the identification process).
For column 13: Provide the risk factors in different rows, using as many rows as necessary. For each risk factor indicate the risk level and corresponding relative risk and proportion of host population.
For column B: Indicate the details of the survey, depending on the specific legal requirements for each pest. Indicate with N/A when the information of certain column is not applicable. The information to be provided in these columns is related to the information included in the column 10 ‘Detection methods’.
For column 18: Indicate the number of trapping sites in case this number differs from the number of traps (column 17) (e.g. the same trap is used in different places).
For column 21: Indicate the number of samples found positive, negative or undetermined. ‘Undetermined’ are those analysed samples for which no result was obtained due to different factors (e.g. below detection level, unprocessed sample-not identified, old).
For column 22: Indicate the outbreak notifications of the year when the survey took place. The outbreak notification number does not need to be included when the competent authority has decided that the finding is one of the cases referred to in Article 14(2), Article 15(2) or Article 16 of Regulation (EU) 2016/2031. In this case, indicate the reason for not providing this information in column 25 (‘Comments’).
For column 23: Indicate the sensitivity of the survey, as defined in International Standard for Phytosanitary Measures (ISPM) 31. This value of the achieved confidence level of pest freedom is calculated based on the examinations (and/or samples) performed given the method sensitivity and the design prevalence.
For column 24: Indicate the design prevalence based on a pre-survey estimate of the likely actual prevalence of the pest in the field. The design prevalence is set as a goal of the survey and corresponds to the compromise the risk managers are making between the risk of having the pest and the resources available for the survey. Typically, for a detection survey a value of 1 % is set.

(1) Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/1715 of 30 September 2019 laying down rules for the functioning of the information management system for official controls and its system components (the IMSOC Regulation) (
OJ L 261, 14.10.2019, p. 37, ELI:
http://data.europa.eu/eli/reg_impl/2019/1715/oj).

Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2025/1930 of 15 May 2025 amending Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 of the European Parliament and of the Council as regards Dechlorane Plus

Official Journalof the European Union ENL series
2025/1930 25.9.2025
(1) Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 implements the commitments of the Union under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants(2)(‘the Convention’) and under the Protocol to the 1979 Convention on Long Range Transboundary Air Pollution on Persistent Organic Pollutants(3)(‘the Protocol’).
(2) Annex A to the Convention contains a list of chemicals. Each Party to the Convention is required to prohibit the chemicals on the list or take the legal and administrative measures necessary to eliminate their production, use, import and export.
(3) The Conference of the Parties to the Convention has, pursuant to Article 8(9) of the Convention, decided in its eleventh meeting held from 1 to 12 May 2023 to amend Annex A to the Convention to include Dechlorane Plus in that Annex with specific exemptions. The Union supported the inclusion of Dechlorane Plus in Annex A with specific exemptions as stipulated in Council Decision (EU) 2023/1006(4). Part A of Annex I to Regulation (EU) 2019/1021, which contains a list of the substances listed in the Convention and in the Protocol as well as substances listed only in the Convention, should therefore also be amended to include Dechlorane Plus.
(4) In 2022, the European Chemicals Agency’s Committees for Risk Assessment (RAC) and for Socio-Economic Analysis (SEAC) (the ‘committees’) adopted their opinions(5)on a restriction dossier from Norway for Dechlorane Plus under Regulation (EC) No 1907/2006 of the European Parliament and of the Council(6). The opinions support a restriction of manufacture and use of Dechlorane Plus, with certain derogations for specific uses. Those derogations are included in the list of specific exemptions granted under the Convention by Decision SC-11/10 of the Conference of the Parties and should be granted as exemptions also under Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 since they are still needed in the Union. This concerns, among others, spare parts for land-based motor vehicles, such as cars, motorcycles, agricultural and construction motor vehicles and industrial trucks, including motor vehicles covered by Regulations (EU) 2018/858(7), (EU) No 167/2013(8)and (EU) No 168/2013(9)of the European Parliament and of the Council.
(5) The Convention includes exemptions for the use of Dechlorane Plus that are not recommended in the committees’ opinions. This includes use of that substance for the purpose of spare parts for outdoor power equipment, medical devices, in vitro diagnostic devices and instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection as well as for the repair of certain articles. Considering that the volume of Dechlorane Plus used in spare parts and for the repair of articles is small and taking into account the importance of maintaining articles already in use, such exemptions should be included in Regulation (EU) 2019/1021.
(6) The maximum duration of the exemptions should be five years, with the possibility to extend for an additional period of five years, in accordance with Article 4(4) of the Convention. This is especially relevant for the exemptions for medical imaging applications and radiotherapy devices and installations, for which the committees’ opinions supported a duration of seven and 10 years, respectively. The Commission should review the need for a prolongation of the specific exemptions at the latest by 1 April 2028 in order to prepare for the Conference of the Parties that is expected to be held in May 2029, since a potential extension of the specific exemptions for this substance under the Convention will have to be decided at that Conference of the Parties.
(7) Article 3 of Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 prohibits the manufacturing, placing on the market and use of substances listed in Annex I to that Regulation whether on their own, in mixtures or in articles. In this regard, it should be clarified that articles that contain Dechlorane Plus and that are produced or placed on the market under an exemption laid down in Annex I to that Regulation and that were already in use on the expiry date of the relevant exemption, are allowed to continue to be used after that date.
(8) Furthermore, in line with Decision SC-11/10, the exemption covering the placing on the market and use of Dechlorane Plus for the purposes of spare parts for certain vehicles, certain machines, for the purposes of marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment, for the purposes of aerospace, space and defence applications and for the purposes of certain instruments is granted until the end of the service life of the relevant product or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier, or, with regard to spare parts for the purposes of medical devices and in vitro diagnostic devices, until the end of the service life of the relevant product. The service life of products in defence, aerospace and space applications may go beyond 2043. The placing on the market and use of spare parts for such applications, present in the territory of the Union before or on the date of the expiry of the relevant exemption, should therefore be allowed even after that date.
(9) To reinforce the application and enforcement of Article 3(1) of Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 in the Union, a limit value should be set for Dechlorane Plus occurring as an unintentional trace contaminant in substances, mixtures and articles.
(10) Considering that laboratories need to improve analysis accuracy and to ensure uniform and adequate application of analytical methods, the unintentional trace contaminant limit should be set at 1 000 mg/kg. 30 months after the entry into force of this Regulation, that limit should be 1 mg/kg.
(11) Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 should therefore be amended accordingly,
Substance CAS No EC No Specific exemption on intermediate use or other specification
‘Dechlorane Plus“Dechlorane Plus” includes its syn-isomer and anti-isomer 13560-89-9135821-03-3135821-74-8 236-948-9 1.For the purposes of this entry, Article 4(1), point (b), shall apply to concentrations of Dechlorane Plus:(a)equal to or below 1 000  mg/kg (0,1 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles until 15 April 2028;(b)equal to or below 1 mg/kg (0,0001 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles after 15 April 2028.2.By way of derogation, the placing on the market and use of Dechlorane Plus shall be allowed for the following purposes:(a)aerospace, space and defence applications, until 26 February 2030;(b)medical imaging applications, until 26 February 2030;(c)radiotherapy devices and installations, until 26 February 2030;(d)spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)land-based motor vehicles;(ii)stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;(iii)marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);(iv)aerospace, space and defence applications;(v)instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier:(e)spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;(ii)in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life.3.The Commission shall assess the need for a prolongation of the specific exemptions in points (a), (b) and (c) of paragraph 2 at the latest by 1 April 2028.4.Articles containing Dechlorane Plus already in use in the Union before or on the date of expiry of the relevant exemption laid down in paragraph 2(a) to (d) may continue to be used.5.Placing on the market and use of spare parts containing Dechlorane Plus referred to in paragraph 2, point (d)(iv) that are present in the territory of the Union before or on 31 December 2043 shall be allowed.’ 1. For the purposes of this entry, Article 4(1), point (b), shall apply to concentrations of Dechlorane Plus:(a)equal to or below 1 000  mg/kg (0,1 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles until 15 April 2028;(b)equal to or below 1 mg/kg (0,0001 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles after 15 April 2028. (a) equal to or below 1 000  mg/kg (0,1 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles until 15 April 2028; (b) equal to or below 1 mg/kg (0,0001 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles after 15 April 2028. 2. By way of derogation, the placing on the market and use of Dechlorane Plus shall be allowed for the following purposes:(a)aerospace, space and defence applications, until 26 February 2030;(b)medical imaging applications, until 26 February 2030;(c)radiotherapy devices and installations, until 26 February 2030;(d)spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)land-based motor vehicles;(ii)stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;(iii)marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);(iv)aerospace, space and defence applications;(v)instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier:(e)spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;(ii)in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life. (a) aerospace, space and defence applications, until 26 February 2030; (b) medical imaging applications, until 26 February 2030; (c) radiotherapy devices and installations, until 26 February 2030; (d) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)land-based motor vehicles;(ii)stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;(iii)marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);(iv)aerospace, space and defence applications;(v)instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier: (i) land-based motor vehicles; (ii) stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction; (iii) marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii); (iv) aerospace, space and defence applications; (v) instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection; (e) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;(ii)in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life. (i) medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745; (ii) in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746; 3. The Commission shall assess the need for a prolongation of the specific exemptions in points (a), (b) and (c) of paragraph 2 at the latest by 1 April 2028. 4. Articles containing Dechlorane Plus already in use in the Union before or on the date of expiry of the relevant exemption laid down in paragraph 2(a) to (d) may continue to be used. 5. Placing on the market and use of spare parts containing Dechlorane Plus referred to in paragraph 2, point (d)(iv) that are present in the territory of the Union before or on 31 December 2043 shall be allowed.’
1. For the purposes of this entry, Article 4(1), point (b), shall apply to concentrations of Dechlorane Plus:(a)equal to or below 1 000  mg/kg (0,1 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles until 15 April 2028;(b)equal to or below 1 mg/kg (0,0001 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles after 15 April 2028. (a) equal to or below 1 000  mg/kg (0,1 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles until 15 April 2028; (b) equal to or below 1 mg/kg (0,0001 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles after 15 April 2028.
(a) equal to or below 1 000  mg/kg (0,1 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles until 15 April 2028;
(b) equal to or below 1 mg/kg (0,0001 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles after 15 April 2028.
2. By way of derogation, the placing on the market and use of Dechlorane Plus shall be allowed for the following purposes:(a)aerospace, space and defence applications, until 26 February 2030;(b)medical imaging applications, until 26 February 2030;(c)radiotherapy devices and installations, until 26 February 2030;(d)spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)land-based motor vehicles;(ii)stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;(iii)marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);(iv)aerospace, space and defence applications;(v)instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier:(e)spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;(ii)in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life. (a) aerospace, space and defence applications, until 26 February 2030; (b) medical imaging applications, until 26 February 2030; (c) radiotherapy devices and installations, until 26 February 2030; (d) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)land-based motor vehicles;(ii)stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;(iii)marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);(iv)aerospace, space and defence applications;(v)instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier: (i) land-based motor vehicles; (ii) stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction; (iii) marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii); (iv) aerospace, space and defence applications; (v) instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection; (e) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;(ii)in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life. (i) medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745; (ii) in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;
(a) aerospace, space and defence applications, until 26 February 2030;
(b) medical imaging applications, until 26 February 2030;
(c) radiotherapy devices and installations, until 26 February 2030;
(d) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)land-based motor vehicles;(ii)stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;(iii)marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);(iv)aerospace, space and defence applications;(v)instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier: (i) land-based motor vehicles; (ii) stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction; (iii) marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii); (iv) aerospace, space and defence applications; (v) instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;
(i) land-based motor vehicles;
(ii) stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;
(iii) marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);
(iv) aerospace, space and defence applications;
(v) instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;
(e) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;(ii)in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life. (i) medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745; (ii) in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;
(i) medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;
(ii) in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;
3. The Commission shall assess the need for a prolongation of the specific exemptions in points (a), (b) and (c) of paragraph 2 at the latest by 1 April 2028.
4. Articles containing Dechlorane Plus already in use in the Union before or on the date of expiry of the relevant exemption laid down in paragraph 2(a) to (d) may continue to be used.
5. Placing on the market and use of spare parts containing Dechlorane Plus referred to in paragraph 2, point (d)(iv) that are present in the territory of the Union before or on 31 December 2043 shall be allowed.’
1. For the purposes of this entry, Article 4(1), point (b), shall apply to concentrations of Dechlorane Plus:(a)equal to or below 1 000  mg/kg (0,1 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles until 15 April 2028;(b)equal to or below 1 mg/kg (0,0001 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles after 15 April 2028. (a) equal to or below 1 000  mg/kg (0,1 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles until 15 April 2028; (b) equal to or below 1 mg/kg (0,0001 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles after 15 April 2028.
(a) equal to or below 1 000  mg/kg (0,1 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles until 15 April 2028;
(b) equal to or below 1 mg/kg (0,0001 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles after 15 April 2028.
(a) equal to or below 1 000  mg/kg (0,1 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles until 15 April 2028;
(b) equal to or below 1 mg/kg (0,0001 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles after 15 April 2028.
2. By way of derogation, the placing on the market and use of Dechlorane Plus shall be allowed for the following purposes:(a)aerospace, space and defence applications, until 26 February 2030;(b)medical imaging applications, until 26 February 2030;(c)radiotherapy devices and installations, until 26 February 2030;(d)spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)land-based motor vehicles;(ii)stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;(iii)marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);(iv)aerospace, space and defence applications;(v)instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier:(e)spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;(ii)in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life. (a) aerospace, space and defence applications, until 26 February 2030; (b) medical imaging applications, until 26 February 2030; (c) radiotherapy devices and installations, until 26 February 2030; (d) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)land-based motor vehicles;(ii)stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;(iii)marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);(iv)aerospace, space and defence applications;(v)instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier: (i) land-based motor vehicles; (ii) stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction; (iii) marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii); (iv) aerospace, space and defence applications; (v) instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection; (e) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;(ii)in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life. (i) medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745; (ii) in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;
(a) aerospace, space and defence applications, until 26 February 2030;
(b) medical imaging applications, until 26 February 2030;
(c) radiotherapy devices and installations, until 26 February 2030;
(d) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)land-based motor vehicles;(ii)stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;(iii)marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);(iv)aerospace, space and defence applications;(v)instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier: (i) land-based motor vehicles; (ii) stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction; (iii) marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii); (iv) aerospace, space and defence applications; (v) instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;
(i) land-based motor vehicles;
(ii) stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;
(iii) marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);
(iv) aerospace, space and defence applications;
(v) instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;
(e) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;(ii)in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life. (i) medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745; (ii) in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;
(i) medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;
(ii) in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;
(a) aerospace, space and defence applications, until 26 February 2030;
(b) medical imaging applications, until 26 February 2030;
(c) radiotherapy devices and installations, until 26 February 2030;
(d) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)land-based motor vehicles;(ii)stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;(iii)marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);(iv)aerospace, space and defence applications;(v)instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier: (i) land-based motor vehicles; (ii) stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction; (iii) marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii); (iv) aerospace, space and defence applications; (v) instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;
(i) land-based motor vehicles;
(ii) stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;
(iii) marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);
(iv) aerospace, space and defence applications;
(v) instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;
(i) land-based motor vehicles;
(ii) stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;
(iii) marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);
(iv) aerospace, space and defence applications;
(v) instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;
(e) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:(i)medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;(ii)in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life. (i) medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745; (ii) in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;
(i) medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;
(ii) in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;
(i) medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;
(ii) in vitrodiagnostic medical devices and accessories forin vitrodiagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;
3. The Commission shall assess the need for a prolongation of the specific exemptions in points (a), (b) and (c) of paragraph 2 at the latest by 1 April 2028.
4. Articles containing Dechlorane Plus already in use in the Union before or on the date of expiry of the relevant exemption laid down in paragraph 2(a) to (d) may continue to be used.
5. Placing on the market and use of spare parts containing Dechlorane Plus referred to in paragraph 2, point (d)(iv) that are present in the territory of the Union before or on 31 December 2043 shall be allowed.’
THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 June 2019 on persistent organic pollutants(1), and in particular Article 15(1) thereof,
(1) Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 implements the commitments of the Union under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants(2)(‘the Convention’) and under the Protocol to the 1979 Convention on Long Range Transboundary Air Pollution on Persistent Organic Pollutants(3)(‘the Protocol’).
(2) Annex A to the Convention contains a list of chemicals. Each Party to the Convention is required to prohibit the chemicals on the list or take the legal and administrative measures necessary to eliminate their production, use, import and export.
(3) The Conference of the Parties to the Convention has, pursuant to Article 8(9) of the Convention, decided in its eleventh meeting held from 1 to 12 May 2023 to amend Annex A to the Convention to include Dechlorane Plus in that Annex with specific exemptions. The Union supported the inclusion of Dechlorane Plus in Annex A with specific exemptions as stipulated in Council Decision (EU) 2023/1006(4). Part A of Annex I to Regulation (EU) 2019/1021, which contains a list of the substances listed in the Convention and in the Protocol as well as substances listed only in the Convention, should therefore also be amended to include Dechlorane Plus.
(4) In 2022, the European Chemicals Agency’s Committees for Risk Assessment (RAC) and for Socio-Economic Analysis (SEAC) (the ‘committees’) adopted their opinions(5)on a restriction dossier from Norway for Dechlorane Plus under Regulation (EC) No 1907/2006 of the European Parliament and of the Council(6). The opinions support a restriction of manufacture and use of Dechlorane Plus, with certain derogations for specific uses. Those derogations are included in the list of specific exemptions granted under the Convention by Decision SC-11/10 of the Conference of the Parties and should be granted as exemptions also under Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 since they are still needed in the Union. This concerns, among others, spare parts for land-based motor vehicles, such as cars, motorcycles, agricultural and construction motor vehicles and industrial trucks, including motor vehicles covered by Regulations (EU) 2018/858(7), (EU) No 167/2013(8)and (EU) No 168/2013(9)of the European Parliament and of the Council.
(5) The Convention includes exemptions for the use of Dechlorane Plus that are not recommended in the committees’ opinions. This includes use of that substance for the purpose of spare parts for outdoor power equipment, medical devices, in vitro diagnostic devices and instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection as well as for the repair of certain articles. Considering that the volume of Dechlorane Plus used in spare parts and for the repair of articles is small and taking into account the importance of maintaining articles already in use, such exemptions should be included in Regulation (EU) 2019/1021.
(6) The maximum duration of the exemptions should be five years, with the possibility to extend for an additional period of five years, in accordance with Article 4(4) of the Convention. This is especially relevant for the exemptions for medical imaging applications and radiotherapy devices and installations, for which the committees’ opinions supported a duration of seven and 10 years, respectively. The Commission should review the need for a prolongation of the specific exemptions at the latest by 1 April 2028 in order to prepare for the Conference of the Parties that is expected to be held in May 2029, since a potential extension of the specific exemptions for this substance under the Convention will have to be decided at that Conference of the Parties.
(7) Article 3 of Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 prohibits the manufacturing, placing on the market and use of substances listed in Annex I to that Regulation whether on their own, in mixtures or in articles. In this regard, it should be clarified that articles that contain Dechlorane Plus and that are produced or placed on the market under an exemption laid down in Annex I to that Regulation and that were already in use on the expiry date of the relevant exemption, are allowed to continue to be used after that date.
(8) Furthermore, in line with Decision SC-11/10, the exemption covering the placing on the market and use of Dechlorane Plus for the purposes of spare parts for certain vehicles, certain machines, for the purposes of marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment, for the purposes of aerospace, space and defence applications and for the purposes of certain instruments is granted until the end of the service life of the relevant product or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier, or, with regard to spare parts for the purposes of medical devices and in vitro diagnostic devices, until the end of the service life of the relevant product. The service life of products in defence, aerospace and space applications may go beyond 2043. The placing on the market and use of spare parts for such applications, present in the territory of the Union before or on the date of the expiry of the relevant exemption, should therefore be allowed even after that date.
(9) To reinforce the application and enforcement of Article 3(1) of Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 in the Union, a limit value should be set for Dechlorane Plus occurring as an unintentional trace contaminant in substances, mixtures and articles.
(10) Considering that laboratories need to improve analysis accuracy and to ensure uniform and adequate application of analytical methods, the unintentional trace contaminant limit should be set at 1 000 mg/kg. 30 months after the entry into force of this Regulation, that limit should be 1 mg/kg.
(11) Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 should therefore be amended accordingly,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Article 1
Annex I to Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 is amended in accordance with the Annex to this Regulation.

Article 2
This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 June 2019 on persistent organic pollutants(1), and in particular Article 15(1) thereof,
(1) Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 implements the commitments of the Union under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants(2)(‘the Convention’) and under the Protocol to the 1979 Convention on Long Range Transboundary Air Pollution on Persistent Organic Pollutants(3)(‘the Protocol’).
(2) Annex A to the Convention contains a list of chemicals. Each Party to the Convention is required to prohibit the chemicals on the list or take the legal and administrative measures necessary to eliminate their production, use, import and export.
(3) The Conference of the Parties to the Convention has, pursuant to Article 8(9) of the Convention, decided in its eleventh meeting held from 1 to 12 May 2023 to amend Annex A to the Convention to include Dechlorane Plus in that Annex with specific exemptions. The Union supported the inclusion of Dechlorane Plus in Annex A with specific exemptions as stipulated in Council Decision (EU) 2023/1006(4). Part A of Annex I to Regulation (EU) 2019/1021, which contains a list of the substances listed in the Convention and in the Protocol as well as substances listed only in the Convention, should therefore also be amended to include Dechlorane Plus.
(4) In 2022, the European Chemicals Agency’s Committees for Risk Assessment (RAC) and for Socio-Economic Analysis (SEAC) (the ‘committees’) adopted their opinions(5)on a restriction dossier from Norway for Dechlorane Plus under Regulation (EC) No 1907/2006 of the European Parliament and of the Council(6). The opinions support a restriction of manufacture and use of Dechlorane Plus, with certain derogations for specific uses. Those derogations are included in the list of specific exemptions granted under the Convention by Decision SC-11/10 of the Conference of the Parties and should be granted as exemptions also under Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 since they are still needed in the Union. This concerns, among others, spare parts for land-based motor vehicles, such as cars, motorcycles, agricultural and construction motor vehicles and industrial trucks, including motor vehicles covered by Regulations (EU) 2018/858(7), (EU) No 167/2013(8)and (EU) No 168/2013(9)of the European Parliament and of the Council.
(5) The Convention includes exemptions for the use of Dechlorane Plus that are not recommended in the committees’ opinions. This includes use of that substance for the purpose of spare parts for outdoor power equipment, medical devices, in vitro diagnostic devices and instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection as well as for the repair of certain articles. Considering that the volume of Dechlorane Plus used in spare parts and for the repair of articles is small and taking into account the importance of maintaining articles already in use, such exemptions should be included in Regulation (EU) 2019/1021.
(6) The maximum duration of the exemptions should be five years, with the possibility to extend for an additional period of five years, in accordance with Article 4(4) of the Convention. This is especially relevant for the exemptions for medical imaging applications and radiotherapy devices and installations, for which the committees’ opinions supported a duration of seven and 10 years, respectively. The Commission should review the need for a prolongation of the specific exemptions at the latest by 1 April 2028 in order to prepare for the Conference of the Parties that is expected to be held in May 2029, since a potential extension of the specific exemptions for this substance under the Convention will have to be decided at that Conference of the Parties.
(7) Article 3 of Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 prohibits the manufacturing, placing on the market and use of substances listed in Annex I to that Regulation whether on their own, in mixtures or in articles. In this regard, it should be clarified that articles that contain Dechlorane Plus and that are produced or placed on the market under an exemption laid down in Annex I to that Regulation and that were already in use on the expiry date of the relevant exemption, are allowed to continue to be used after that date.
(8) Furthermore, in line with Decision SC-11/10, the exemption covering the placing on the market and use of Dechlorane Plus for the purposes of spare parts for certain vehicles, certain machines, for the purposes of marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment, for the purposes of aerospace, space and defence applications and for the purposes of certain instruments is granted until the end of the service life of the relevant product or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier, or, with regard to spare parts for the purposes of medical devices and in vitro diagnostic devices, until the end of the service life of the relevant product. The service life of products in defence, aerospace and space applications may go beyond 2043. The placing on the market and use of spare parts for such applications, present in the territory of the Union before or on the date of the expiry of the relevant exemption, should therefore be allowed even after that date.
(9) To reinforce the application and enforcement of Article 3(1) of Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 in the Union, a limit value should be set for Dechlorane Plus occurring as an unintentional trace contaminant in substances, mixtures and articles.
(10) Considering that laboratories need to improve analysis accuracy and to ensure uniform and adequate application of analytical methods, the unintentional trace contaminant limit should be set at 1 000 mg/kg. 30 months after the entry into force of this Regulation, that limit should be 1 mg/kg.
(11) Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 should therefore be amended accordingly,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:
Annex I to Regulation (EU) 2019/1021 is amended in accordance with the Annex to this Regulation.
This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.
ANNEXIn Part A of Annex I to Regulation (EU) 2019/1021, the following entry is added:

Substance
CAS No
EC No
Specific exemption on intermediate use or other specification
‘Dechlorane Plus
“Dechlorane Plus” includes its syn-isomer and anti-isomer
13560-89-9
135821-03-3
135821-74-8
236-948-9 1. For the purposes of this entry, Article 4(1), point (b), shall apply to concentrations of Dechlorane Plus:
(a) equal to or below 1 000 mg/kg (0,1 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles until 15 April 2028;
(b) equal to or below 1 mg/kg (0,0001 % by weight) where they are present in substances, mixtures or articles after 15 April 2028. 2. By way of derogation, the placing on the market and use of Dechlorane Plus shall be allowed for the following purposes:
(a) aerospace, space and defence applications, until 26 February 2030;
(b) medical imaging applications, until 26 February 2030;
(c) radiotherapy devices and installations, until 26 February 2030;
(d) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:
(i) land-based motor vehicles;
(ii) stationary industrial machines for use in agriculture, forestry and construction;
(iii) marine, garden, forestry and outdoor power equipment other than that covered under (ii);
(iv) aerospace, space and defence applications;
(v) instruments for analysis, measurements, control, monitoring, testing, production and inspection;
where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life or until 31 December 2043, whichever comes earlier:
(e) spare parts for, and the repair of, any of the following:
(i) medical devices and accessories for medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/745;
(ii) in vitro diagnostic medical devices and accessories for in vitro diagnostic medical devices within the scope of Regulation (EU) 2017/746;
where Dechlorane Plus was initially used in their production, until the end of their service life. 3. The Commission shall assess the need for a prolongation of the specific exemptions in points (a), (b) and (c) of paragraph 2 at the latest by 1 April 2028. 4. Articles containing Dechlorane Plus already in use in the Union before or on the date of expiry of the relevant exemption laid down in paragraph 2(a) to (d) may continue to be used. 5. Placing on the market and use of spare parts containing Dechlorane Plus referred to in paragraph 2, point (d)(iv) that are present in the territory of the Union before or on 31 December 2043 shall be allowed.’

Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2025/1920 of 12 June 2025 amending Regulation (EU) 2017/745 of the European Parliament and of the Council, as regards the assignment of Unique Device Identifiers for spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles

Official Journalof the European Union ENL series
2025/1920 23.9.2025
(1) Regulation (EU) 2017/745 provides for a Unique Device Identification (UDI) system for the identification and traceability of devices. Before placing a device, other than a custom-made device, on the market, the manufacturer is required to assign to the device and to all higher levels of packaging of the device, a UDI. The UDI comprises of a device identifier (UDI-DI) and a production identifier (UDI-PI). The UDI-DI is one of the core elements which a manufacturer needs to provide to the UDI database in the European database on medical devices (‘Eudamed’).
(2) A UDI-DI is assigned to a specific model of device and manufacturer. Spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles, also called ready-made reading spectacles or ready readers, are available in many variants due to the high number of design (clinical and non-clinical) parameters and construction variants that characterise them. As a result an UDI-DI is assigned to each such variant. This individualisation at UDI-DI level results in a proliferation of UDI-DIs to be assigned to similar spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles and a disproportionate number of UDI-DI data entries in Eudamed relative to the safety risk associated with these products.
(3) Developments at international level and discussions with issuing entities, industry and other relevant stakeholders, and Union competent authorities for medical devices, together with the technical progress, suggest that certain highly individualised devices such as spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles that have the same design (clinical and non-clinical) parameter combinations are more appropriately grouped under the same UDI-DI (‘Master UDI-DI’). In order to avoid assignment of different device identifiers to very similar spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles, a solution is therefore needed for UDI-DI assignment to these products.
(4) Regulation (EU) 2017/745 should therefore be amended accordingly.
(5) In order to comply with the amendments made by this Regulation economic operators must implement changes in their internal systems and adapt technologies for printing and scanning UDI carriers. The application of this Regulation should therefore be deferred,
‘6.6.2. Spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles6.6.2.1.Spectacle framesA UDI-DI shall be assigned to spectacle frames that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least the horizontal boxed lens size (‘ ‘Master UDI-DI’ ’).In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.6.6.2.2.Spectacle lensesA UDI-DI shall be assigned to spectacle lenses that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least groups of mean sphere (spherical equivalent power), groups of addition power and groups of similar vision impairments (‘ ‘Master UDI-DI’ ’).In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.6.6.2.3.Ready-to-wear reading spectaclesA UDI-DI shall be assigned to ready-to-wear reading spectacles that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least the horizontal boxed lens size and lens spherical power (‘ ‘Master UDI-DI’ ’).In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.’. 6.6.2.1. Spectacle framesA UDI-DI shall be assigned to spectacle frames that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least the horizontal boxed lens size (‘ ‘Master UDI-DI’ ’).In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph. 6.6.2.2. Spectacle lensesA UDI-DI shall be assigned to spectacle lenses that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least groups of mean sphere (spherical equivalent power), groups of addition power and groups of similar vision impairments (‘ ‘Master UDI-DI’ ’).In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph. 6.6.2.3. Ready-to-wear reading spectaclesA UDI-DI shall be assigned to ready-to-wear reading spectacles that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least the horizontal boxed lens size and lens spherical power (‘ ‘Master UDI-DI’ ’).In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.’.
6.6.2.1. Spectacle framesA UDI-DI shall be assigned to spectacle frames that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least the horizontal boxed lens size (‘ ‘Master UDI-DI’ ’).In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.
6.6.2.2. Spectacle lensesA UDI-DI shall be assigned to spectacle lenses that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least groups of mean sphere (spherical equivalent power), groups of addition power and groups of similar vision impairments (‘ ‘Master UDI-DI’ ’).In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.
6.6.2.3. Ready-to-wear reading spectaclesA UDI-DI shall be assigned to ready-to-wear reading spectacles that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least the horizontal boxed lens size and lens spherical power (‘ ‘Master UDI-DI’ ’).In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.’.
6.6.2.1. Spectacle framesA UDI-DI shall be assigned to spectacle frames that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least the horizontal boxed lens size (‘ ‘Master UDI-DI’ ’).In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.
6.6.2.2. Spectacle lensesA UDI-DI shall be assigned to spectacle lenses that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least groups of mean sphere (spherical equivalent power), groups of addition power and groups of similar vision impairments (‘ ‘Master UDI-DI’ ’).In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.
6.6.2.3. Ready-to-wear reading spectaclesA UDI-DI shall be assigned to ready-to-wear reading spectacles that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least the horizontal boxed lens size and lens spherical power (‘ ‘Master UDI-DI’ ’).In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.’.
THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2017/745 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 5 April 2017 on medical devices, amending Directive 2001/83/EC, Regulation (EC) No 178/2002 and Regulation (EC) No 1223/2009 and repealing Council Directives 90/385/EEC and 93/42/EEC(1), in particular Article 27(10), point (b) thereof,
(1) Regulation (EU) 2017/745 provides for a Unique Device Identification (UDI) system for the identification and traceability of devices. Before placing a device, other than a custom-made device, on the market, the manufacturer is required to assign to the device and to all higher levels of packaging of the device, a UDI. The UDI comprises of a device identifier (UDI-DI) and a production identifier (UDI-PI). The UDI-DI is one of the core elements which a manufacturer needs to provide to the UDI database in the European database on medical devices (‘Eudamed’).
(2) A UDI-DI is assigned to a specific model of device and manufacturer. Spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles, also called ready-made reading spectacles or ready readers, are available in many variants due to the high number of design (clinical and non-clinical) parameters and construction variants that characterise them. As a result an UDI-DI is assigned to each such variant. This individualisation at UDI-DI level results in a proliferation of UDI-DIs to be assigned to similar spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles and a disproportionate number of UDI-DI data entries in Eudamed relative to the safety risk associated with these products.
(3) Developments at international level and discussions with issuing entities, industry and other relevant stakeholders, and Union competent authorities for medical devices, together with the technical progress, suggest that certain highly individualised devices such as spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles that have the same design (clinical and non-clinical) parameter combinations are more appropriately grouped under the same UDI-DI (‘Master UDI-DI’). In order to avoid assignment of different device identifiers to very similar spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles, a solution is therefore needed for UDI-DI assignment to these products.
(4) Regulation (EU) 2017/745 should therefore be amended accordingly.
(5) In order to comply with the amendments made by this Regulation economic operators must implement changes in their internal systems and adapt technologies for printing and scanning UDI carriers. The application of this Regulation should therefore be deferred,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Article 1
In Part C of Annex VI to Regulation (EU) 2017/745 the following sections are added:
‘6.6.2.
Spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles
6.6.2.1.
Spectacle frames
A UDI-DI shall be assigned to spectacle frames that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least the horizontal boxed lens size (‘
‘Master UDI-DI’
’).
In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.
6.6.2.2.
Spectacle lenses
A UDI-DI shall be assigned to spectacle lenses that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least groups of mean sphere (spherical equivalent power), groups of addition power and groups of similar vision impairments (‘
‘Master UDI-DI’
’).
In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.
6.6.2.3.
Ready-to-wear reading spectacles
A UDI-DI shall be assigned to ready-to-wear reading spectacles that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least the horizontal boxed lens size and lens spherical power (‘
‘Master UDI-DI’
’).
In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.’.

Article 2
This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.
It shall apply from 1 November 2028.
However, manufacturers may already before that date assign a Master UDI-DI in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2017/745 as amended by this Regulation.

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2017/745 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 5 April 2017 on medical devices, amending Directive 2001/83/EC, Regulation (EC) No 178/2002 and Regulation (EC) No 1223/2009 and repealing Council Directives 90/385/EEC and 93/42/EEC(1), in particular Article 27(10), point (b) thereof,
(1) Regulation (EU) 2017/745 provides for a Unique Device Identification (UDI) system for the identification and traceability of devices. Before placing a device, other than a custom-made device, on the market, the manufacturer is required to assign to the device and to all higher levels of packaging of the device, a UDI. The UDI comprises of a device identifier (UDI-DI) and a production identifier (UDI-PI). The UDI-DI is one of the core elements which a manufacturer needs to provide to the UDI database in the European database on medical devices (‘Eudamed’).
(2) A UDI-DI is assigned to a specific model of device and manufacturer. Spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles, also called ready-made reading spectacles or ready readers, are available in many variants due to the high number of design (clinical and non-clinical) parameters and construction variants that characterise them. As a result an UDI-DI is assigned to each such variant. This individualisation at UDI-DI level results in a proliferation of UDI-DIs to be assigned to similar spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles and a disproportionate number of UDI-DI data entries in Eudamed relative to the safety risk associated with these products.
(3) Developments at international level and discussions with issuing entities, industry and other relevant stakeholders, and Union competent authorities for medical devices, together with the technical progress, suggest that certain highly individualised devices such as spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles that have the same design (clinical and non-clinical) parameter combinations are more appropriately grouped under the same UDI-DI (‘Master UDI-DI’). In order to avoid assignment of different device identifiers to very similar spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles, a solution is therefore needed for UDI-DI assignment to these products.
(4) Regulation (EU) 2017/745 should therefore be amended accordingly.
(5) In order to comply with the amendments made by this Regulation economic operators must implement changes in their internal systems and adapt technologies for printing and scanning UDI carriers. The application of this Regulation should therefore be deferred,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:
In Part C of Annex VI to Regulation (EU) 2017/745 the following sections are added:
‘6.6.2.
Spectacle frames, spectacle lenses and ready-to-wear reading spectacles
6.6.2.1.
Spectacle frames
A UDI-DI shall be assigned to spectacle frames that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least the horizontal boxed lens size (‘
‘Master UDI-DI’
’).
In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.
6.6.2.2.
Spectacle lenses
A UDI-DI shall be assigned to spectacle lenses that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least groups of mean sphere (spherical equivalent power), groups of addition power and groups of similar vision impairments (‘
‘Master UDI-DI’
’).
In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.
6.6.2.3.
Ready-to-wear reading spectacles
A UDI-DI shall be assigned to ready-to-wear reading spectacles that have the same combination of design parameters, including at least the horizontal boxed lens size and lens spherical power (‘
‘Master UDI-DI’
’).
In addition to the requirement laid down in Section 3.9, a new Master UDI-DI shall be required whenever there is a change in the combination of the design parameters referred to in the first paragraph.’.
This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.
It shall apply from 1 November 2028.
However, manufacturers may already before that date assign a Master UDI-DI in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2017/745 as amended by this Regulation.

Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2025/1871 of 23 July 2025 amending Regulation (EU) 2015/758 of the European Parliament and of the Council as regards the standards relating to eCall and amending Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 as regards the technical requirements and test procedures for approval of motor vehicles equipped with 112-based eCall in-vehicle systems

Official Journalof the European Union ENL series
2025/1871 28.10.2025
(1) Regulation (EU) 2015/758 requires all new types of vehicles of categories M1and N1to be equipped with a 112-based eCall in-vehicle system.
(2) The Commission’s Communication on a Sustainable and Smart Mobility Strategy(2)identifies the need to adapt the eCall legal framework to new telecommunication technologies.
(3) Regulation (EU) 2015/758 contains a list of European standards and technical specifications, which the technical requirements for the approval of eCall systems and vehicles equipped with such systems are based on.
(4) The European Committee for Standardisation (CEN) has adopted new standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024 succeeding respectively the technical specifications CEN/TS 17184:2022 and CEN/TS 17240:2018. In addition, the new version of the standard EN 16072:2025 contains relevant changes for eCall. Accordingly, the references to the respective technical specifications and standards in Article 5(8) of Regulation (EU) 2015/758 should be updated.
(5) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79(3)establishes detailed technical requirements and test procedures for the approval of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle systems and motor vehicles equipped with such systems. Those technical requirements and test procedures should be revised to ensure technologic neutrality and to allow technology agnostic implementation of the test methods.
(6) In order to ensure the effectiveness of the eCall in-vehicle system self-test, it is necessary to provide that the failure modes should be tested separately.
(7) In order to ensure the readiness of the eCall in-vehicle system for the periodic roadworthiness tests in accordance with Directive 2014/45/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council(4), it is necessary to provide the specific technical requirements to be met at type-approval to facilitate the roadworthiness testing throughout the lifecycle of the motor vehicles.
(8) To ensure that the verification of the lack of traceability of the eCall in-vehicle is performed without ambiguity it is necessary to specify the expected behaviour after the eCall is emitted.
(9) In order to ensure that the structure of the test procedures is consistent throughout the Annexes to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79, those annexes should clearly distinguish between the test conditions, the test methods and the assessment.
(10) It is necessary to set out provisions allowing for the extension of approvals granted before 1 January 2027 to 112-based eCall in-vehicle systems operating over circuit-switched communication networks to ensure that they continue to serve the purpose after the transition to packet-switched communication technology.
(11) In order to make sure that the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system remains operational in case the main power supply of the vehicle is disconnected, it is necessary to provide test procedures for the back-up power supply (if fitted) and the secondary vehicle power supply, which might be used after a road accident with the vehicle.
(12) Therefore, Regulation (EU) 2015/758 and Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 should be amended accordingly.
(13) In order to provide Member States, national authorities and manufacturers with sufficient lead time to implement the changes, the mandatory application of the standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024 should be deferred to 1 January 2027. In addition, it is necessary to set out transitional provisions for the implementation of the new requirements regarding the back-up power supply and the secondary vehicle power supply of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system and regarding the readiness for periodic roadworthiness tests of new types of vehicles with such systems,
(1) in point (a), ‘EN 16072:2022’ is replaced by ‘EN 16072:2025’.
(2) in point (b), ‘CEN/TS 17184:2022’ is replaced by ‘EN 17184:2024’.
(3) in point (c), ‘CEN/TS 17240:2018’ is replaced by ‘EN 17240:2024’.
(1) in Article 4, the following point (12) is added:‘(12)‘‘test eCall’’ means an eCall for testing purposes, which can be clearly distinguished from a real eCall or which does not reach the Public Safety answering Point (‘‘PSAP’’).’; ‘(12) ‘‘test eCall’’ means an eCall for testing purposes, which can be clearly distinguished from a real eCall or which does not reach the Public Safety answering Point (‘‘PSAP’’).’;
‘(12) ‘‘test eCall’’ means an eCall for testing purposes, which can be clearly distinguished from a real eCall or which does not reach the Public Safety answering Point (‘‘PSAP’’).’;
‘(12) ‘‘test eCall’’ means an eCall for testing purposes, which can be clearly distinguished from a real eCall or which does not reach the Public Safety answering Point (‘‘PSAP’’).’;
(2) in Article 5, the following paragraph (4) is added:‘4.   For the purpose of extending the EC type-approval granted in accordance with paragraph (1) before 1 January 2027, the technical service may exempt 112-based eCall in-vehicle system from full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and from the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III. The changes of the modified 112-based eCall in-vehicle system as compared to the originally approved system shall be documented and explained by the manufacturer to the technical service and the type-approval authority:(a)Where the communication part is modified without impacting other components of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system and a vehicle crash-test is conducted for other purposes, the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be included and the full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III shall be conducted.(b)Where the modification of the communication part of a 112-based eCall in-vehicle system has an impact on its other parts, the full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III shall be conducted.’; (a) Where the communication part is modified without impacting other components of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system and a vehicle crash-test is conducted for other purposes, the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be included and the full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III shall be conducted. (b) Where the modification of the communication part of a 112-based eCall in-vehicle system has an impact on its other parts, the full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III shall be conducted.’
(a) Where the communication part is modified without impacting other components of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system and a vehicle crash-test is conducted for other purposes, the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be included and the full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III shall be conducted.
(b) Where the modification of the communication part of a 112-based eCall in-vehicle system has an impact on its other parts, the full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III shall be conducted.’
(a) Where the communication part is modified without impacting other components of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system and a vehicle crash-test is conducted for other purposes, the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be included and the full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III shall be conducted.
(b) Where the modification of the communication part of a 112-based eCall in-vehicle system has an impact on its other parts, the full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III shall be conducted.’
(3) in Article 7, paragraph (1), is replaced by the following:‘1.   EC type-approval of a 112-based eCall in-vehicle STU shall be subject to the STU passing the tests laid down in Annexes I, IV, VI, VII and VIII and complying with the relevant requirements laid down in those Annexes. In case the STU is fitted with a back-up power source, it shall comply with the requirements and be subject to the test procedure laid down in Annex X.’;
(4) Annex I is amended in accordance with Annex I to this Regulation;
(5) Annex II is amended in accordance with Annex II to this Regulation;
(6) Annex III is amended in accordance with Annex III to this Regulation;
(7) Annex IV is amended in accordance with Annex IV to this Regulation;
(8) Annex VII is amended in accordance with Annex V to this Regulation;
(9) Annex VIII is amended in accordance with Annex VI to this Regulation;
(10) Annex VII to this Regulation is added as Annex X.
(1) point 1.1.4. is replaced by the following:‘1.1.4.Position determination: The eCall system or representative arrangement shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’; ‘1.1.4. Position determination: The eCall system or representative arrangement shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’;
‘1.1.4. Position determination: The eCall system or representative arrangement shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’;
‘1.1.4. Position determination: The eCall system or representative arrangement shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’;
(2) in point 2.2.4., the following sentence is added:‘Any such agreement shall be documented in the test report.’;
(3) point 2.4.2. is replaced by the following:‘2.4.2.The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall using the power source subjected to the high-severity deceleration.’; ‘2.4.2. The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall using the power source subjected to the high-severity deceleration.’;
‘2.4.2. The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall using the power source subjected to the high-severity deceleration.’;
‘2.4.2. The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall using the power source subjected to the high-severity deceleration.’;
(4) in point 2.4.3. the introductory phrase is replaced by the following:‘2.4.3.Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:’; ‘2.4.3. Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:’;
‘2.4.3. Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:’;
‘2.4.3. Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:’;
(5) point 2.4.3.(c) is replaced by the following:‘(c)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, shall be applied for any test eCall;’; ‘(c) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, shall be applied for any test eCall;’;
‘(c) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, shall be applied for any test eCall;’;
‘(c) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, shall be applied for any test eCall;’;
(6) point 2.4.4. is replaced by the following:‘2.4.4.Perform a test eCall by applying a trigger according to the instructions of the manufacturer.’; ‘2.4.4. Perform a test eCall by applying a trigger according to the instructions of the manufacturer.’;
‘2.4.4. Perform a test eCall by applying a trigger according to the instructions of the manufacturer.’;
‘2.4.4. Perform a test eCall by applying a trigger according to the instructions of the manufacturer.’;
(7) point 2.4.5.(c) is replaced by the following:‘(c)Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as specified in point 2.5 by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’.(d)Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.;’ ‘(c) Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as specified in point 2.5 by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. (d) Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.;’
‘(c) Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as specified in point 2.5 by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’.
(d) Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.;’
‘(c) Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as specified in point 2.5 by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’.
(d) Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.;’
(8) point 2.4.6. is replaced by the following:‘2.4.6.Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’; ‘2.4.6. Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
‘2.4.6. Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
‘2.4.6. Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
(9) points 2.7.1.1. and 2.7.1.2. are replaced by the following:‘2.7.1.1.It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will be performed over-the-air via a non-public (i.e. simulated) mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.2.7.1.2.The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.’; ‘2.7.1.1. It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will be performed over-the-air via a non-public (i.e. simulated) mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point. 2.7.1.2. The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.’;
‘2.7.1.1. It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will be performed over-the-air via a non-public (i.e. simulated) mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.
2.7.1.2. The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.’;
‘2.7.1.1. It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will be performed over-the-air via a non-public (i.e. simulated) mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.
2.7.1.2. The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.’;
(10) points 2.7.2.1., 2.7.2.2. and 2.7.2.3. are replaced by the following:‘2.7.2.1.It shall be ensured that a regular call to a long number is emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system (instead of an emergency call) and is performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.In case where this procedure is technically not possible, an emergency call emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system via a public mobile network in packet-switched domain can be used instead, if agreed by the manufacturer or technical service with the genuine PSAP or if a technical solution has been set up to route the eCall to a dedicated PSAP test point.2.7.2.2.The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.2.7.2.3.If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the TPSP test point.’; ‘2.7.2.1. It shall be ensured that a regular call to a long number is emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system (instead of an emergency call) and is performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.In case where this procedure is technically not possible, an emergency call emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system via a public mobile network in packet-switched domain can be used instead, if agreed by the manufacturer or technical service with the genuine PSAP or if a technical solution has been set up to route the eCall to a dedicated PSAP test point. 2.7.2.2. The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests. 2.7.2.3. If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the TPSP test point.’;
‘2.7.2.1. It shall be ensured that a regular call to a long number is emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system (instead of an emergency call) and is performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.In case where this procedure is technically not possible, an emergency call emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system via a public mobile network in packet-switched domain can be used instead, if agreed by the manufacturer or technical service with the genuine PSAP or if a technical solution has been set up to route the eCall to a dedicated PSAP test point.
2.7.2.2. The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.
2.7.2.3. If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the TPSP test point.’;
‘2.7.2.1. It shall be ensured that a regular call to a long number is emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system (instead of an emergency call) and is performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.In case where this procedure is technically not possible, an emergency call emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system via a public mobile network in packet-switched domain can be used instead, if agreed by the manufacturer or technical service with the genuine PSAP or if a technical solution has been set up to route the eCall to a dedicated PSAP test point.
2.7.2.2. The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.
2.7.2.3. If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the TPSP test point.’;
(11) points 2.7.3.1., 2.7.3.2. and 2.7.3.3. are replaced by the following:‘2.7.3.1.It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will only be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.2.7.3.2.The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.2.7.3.3.If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated TPSP test point.’; ‘2.7.3.1. It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will only be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point. 2.7.3.2. The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests. 2.7.3.3. If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated TPSP test point.’;
‘2.7.3.1. It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will only be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.
2.7.3.2. The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.
2.7.3.3. If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated TPSP test point.’;
‘2.7.3.1. It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will only be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.
2.7.3.2. The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.
2.7.3.3. If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated TPSP test point.’;
(12) point 2.8.1. is replaced by the following:‘These procedures shall apply for the purposes of type-approval of a 112-based eCall in-vehicle system component in accordance with Article 6 of this Regulation.’;
(13) point 2.8.2.2. is replaced by the following:‘2.8.2.2.The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall according to paragraphs 2.4.3 to 2.4.6.’; ‘2.8.2.2. The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall according to paragraphs 2.4.3 to 2.4.6.’;
‘2.8.2.2. The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall according to paragraphs 2.4.3 to 2.4.6.’;
‘2.8.2.2. The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall according to paragraphs 2.4.3 to 2.4.6.’;
(14) points 2.8.2.3, 2.8.2.4, 2.8.2.5 and 2.8.2.6 are deleted.
(1) point 1.1.6. is replaced by the following:‘1.1.6.Position determination: The eCall system shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’; ‘1.1.6. Position determination: The eCall system shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’;
‘1.1.6. Position determination: The eCall system shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’;
‘1.1.6. Position determination: The eCall system shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’;
(2) in point 2.3.3., point (c) is replaced by the following:‘(c)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;’; ‘(c) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;’;
‘(c) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;’;
‘(c) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;’;
(3) point 2.4 is replaced by the following:‘2.4.Power-Supply Test procedureThe test procedure described in points 2.4.1 to 2.4.6. shall apply where Annex X is applicable and any of the following conditions is met:(a)the eCall STU was not subject of the test laid down in Annex X,(b)the eCall STU was subject of the test laid down in Annex X but the back-up power supply in the vehicle is shared with other devices.2.4.1.If the automatic eCall was terminated, trigger a manual test eCall.2.4.2.Read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point. Alternatively, the test method referred to in point 2.6.2. of Annex III can be performed at this step if the duration of 5 minutes is not exceeded.2.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).2.4.4.Wait for 56 minutes after the call was ended.2.4.5.Initiate a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.2.4.6.If the call is automatically accepted, read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point, otherwise the test is finished.’; (a) the eCall STU was not subject of the test laid down in Annex X, (b) the eCall STU was subject of the test laid down in Annex X but the back-up power supply in the vehicle is shared with other devices. 2.4.1. If the automatic eCall was terminated, trigger a manual test eCall. 2.4.2. Read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point. Alternatively, the test method referred to in point 2.6.2. of Annex III can be performed at this step if the duration of 5 minutes is not exceeded. 2.4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 2.4.4. Wait for 56 minutes after the call was ended. 2.4.5. Initiate a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system. 2.4.6. If the call is automatically accepted, read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point, otherwise the test is finished.’;
(a) the eCall STU was not subject of the test laid down in Annex X,
(b) the eCall STU was subject of the test laid down in Annex X but the back-up power supply in the vehicle is shared with other devices.
2.4.1. If the automatic eCall was terminated, trigger a manual test eCall.
2.4.2. Read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point. Alternatively, the test method referred to in point 2.6.2. of Annex III can be performed at this step if the duration of 5 minutes is not exceeded.
2.4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
2.4.4. Wait for 56 minutes after the call was ended.
2.4.5. Initiate a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.
2.4.6. If the call is automatically accepted, read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point, otherwise the test is finished.’;
(a) the eCall STU was not subject of the test laid down in Annex X,
(b) the eCall STU was subject of the test laid down in Annex X but the back-up power supply in the vehicle is shared with other devices.
2.4.1. If the automatic eCall was terminated, trigger a manual test eCall.
2.4.2. Read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point. Alternatively, the test method referred to in point 2.6.2. of Annex III can be performed at this step if the duration of 5 minutes is not exceeded.
2.4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
2.4.4. Wait for 56 minutes after the call was ended.
2.4.5. Initiate a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.
2.4.6. If the call is automatically accepted, read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point, otherwise the test is finished.’;
(4) point 2.7. is deleted;
(5) point 3 is added:‘3.Verification procedure3.1.Verification of the Minimum Set of Data (MSD)3.1.1.Verify each of the following items in at least one of the test eCalls:(a)Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’.(b)Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible).(c)Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded.(d)Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application.(e)Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall.(f)Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.(g)Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds.3.2.If the automatic test eCall could not be performed successfully due to vehicle-external factors, it shall be permissible to verify the automatic trigger following the impact via the internal record transaction function of the in-vehicle system. This register shall be capable to store received trigger signals in non-volatile memory. The test engineer shall have access to the data stored in the in-vehicle system and shall verify that no record of automatic trigger signal is stored before the impact event and that a record of an automatic trigger signal is stored after the impact event.3.3.If the test eCall was performed with the vehicle connected to an off-vehicle power supply (in cases where the impact test was carried out with the standard vehicle power supply not installed), verify that the on-board electrical system feeding the eCall in-vehicle system remained intact. This shall be verified by a record of a test engineer confirming a successful check of the integrity of the on-board electrical system including the dummy in-vehicle power source (visual inspection for mechanical damage to either the power source’s mounting bracket or its structure) and the connections via its terminals.3.4.Verification of Power-Supply test3.4.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if the eCall in-vehicle system is capable to communicate for the required period, as specified in point 2 of Annex X. Otherwise, the test is determined to have been failed.’. 3.1. Verification of the Minimum Set of Data (MSD) 3.1.1. Verify each of the following items in at least one of the test eCalls:(a)Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’.(b)Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible).(c)Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded.(d)Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application.(e)Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall.(f)Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.(g)Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds. (a) Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’. (b) Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible). (c) Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded. (d) Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application. (e) Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall. (f) Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’. (g) Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds. 3.2. If the automatic test eCall could not be performed successfully due to vehicle-external factors, it shall be permissible to verify the automatic trigger following the impact via the internal record transaction function of the in-vehicle system. This register shall be capable to store received trigger signals in non-volatile memory. The test engineer shall have access to the data stored in the in-vehicle system and shall verify that no record of automatic trigger signal is stored before the impact event and that a record of an automatic trigger signal is stored after the impact event. 3.3. If the test eCall was performed with the vehicle connected to an off-vehicle power supply (in cases where the impact test was carried out with the standard vehicle power supply not installed), verify that the on-board electrical system feeding the eCall in-vehicle system remained intact. This shall be verified by a record of a test engineer confirming a successful check of the integrity of the on-board electrical system including the dummy in-vehicle power source (visual inspection for mechanical damage to either the power source’s mounting bracket or its structure) and the connections via its terminals. 3.4. Verification of Power-Supply test 3.4.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if the eCall in-vehicle system is capable to communicate for the required period, as specified in point 2 of Annex X. Otherwise, the test is determined to have been failed.’.
3.1. Verification of the Minimum Set of Data (MSD)
3.1.1. Verify each of the following items in at least one of the test eCalls:(a)Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’.(b)Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible).(c)Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded.(d)Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application.(e)Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall.(f)Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.(g)Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds. (a) Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’. (b) Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible). (c) Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded. (d) Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application. (e) Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall. (f) Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’. (g) Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds.
(a) Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’.
(b) Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible).
(c) Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded.
(d) Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application.
(e) Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall.
(f) Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.
(g) Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds.
3.2. If the automatic test eCall could not be performed successfully due to vehicle-external factors, it shall be permissible to verify the automatic trigger following the impact via the internal record transaction function of the in-vehicle system. This register shall be capable to store received trigger signals in non-volatile memory. The test engineer shall have access to the data stored in the in-vehicle system and shall verify that no record of automatic trigger signal is stored before the impact event and that a record of an automatic trigger signal is stored after the impact event.
3.3. If the test eCall was performed with the vehicle connected to an off-vehicle power supply (in cases where the impact test was carried out with the standard vehicle power supply not installed), verify that the on-board electrical system feeding the eCall in-vehicle system remained intact. This shall be verified by a record of a test engineer confirming a successful check of the integrity of the on-board electrical system including the dummy in-vehicle power source (visual inspection for mechanical damage to either the power source’s mounting bracket or its structure) and the connections via its terminals.
3.4. Verification of Power-Supply test
3.4.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if the eCall in-vehicle system is capable to communicate for the required period, as specified in point 2 of Annex X. Otherwise, the test is determined to have been failed.’.
3.1. Verification of the Minimum Set of Data (MSD)
3.1.1. Verify each of the following items in at least one of the test eCalls:(a)Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’.(b)Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible).(c)Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded.(d)Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application.(e)Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall.(f)Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.(g)Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds. (a) Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’. (b) Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible). (c) Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded. (d) Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application. (e) Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall. (f) Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’. (g) Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds.
(a) Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’.
(b) Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible).
(c) Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded.
(d) Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application.
(e) Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall.
(f) Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.
(g) Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds.
(a) Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’.
(b) Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible).
(c) Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded.
(d) Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application.
(e) Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall.
(f) Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.
(g) Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds.
3.2. If the automatic test eCall could not be performed successfully due to vehicle-external factors, it shall be permissible to verify the automatic trigger following the impact via the internal record transaction function of the in-vehicle system. This register shall be capable to store received trigger signals in non-volatile memory. The test engineer shall have access to the data stored in the in-vehicle system and shall verify that no record of automatic trigger signal is stored before the impact event and that a record of an automatic trigger signal is stored after the impact event.
3.3. If the test eCall was performed with the vehicle connected to an off-vehicle power supply (in cases where the impact test was carried out with the standard vehicle power supply not installed), verify that the on-board electrical system feeding the eCall in-vehicle system remained intact. This shall be verified by a record of a test engineer confirming a successful check of the integrity of the on-board electrical system including the dummy in-vehicle power source (visual inspection for mechanical damage to either the power source’s mounting bracket or its structure) and the connections via its terminals.
3.4. Verification of Power-Supply test
3.4.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if the eCall in-vehicle system is capable to communicate for the required period, as specified in point 2 of Annex X. Otherwise, the test is determined to have been failed.’.
(1) point 1.1.2. is deleted;
(2) point 2.1. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.Purpose of the audio equipment crash resistance test procedureThe purpose of this test is to verify that loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are successfully connected and that the audio equipment remained functional after the vehicle has been subjected to the frontal impact or the side impact test.’ ‘2.1. Purpose of the audio equipment crash resistance test procedureThe purpose of this test is to verify that loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are successfully connected and that the audio equipment remained functional after the vehicle has been subjected to the frontal impact or the side impact test.’
‘2.1. Purpose of the audio equipment crash resistance test procedureThe purpose of this test is to verify that loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are successfully connected and that the audio equipment remained functional after the vehicle has been subjected to the frontal impact or the side impact test.’
‘2.1. Purpose of the audio equipment crash resistance test procedureThe purpose of this test is to verify that loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are successfully connected and that the audio equipment remained functional after the vehicle has been subjected to the frontal impact or the side impact test.’
(3) point 2.3.1. is repaced by the following:‘2.3.1.The sustained functionality of the audio equipment shall be verified by performing a test eCall after the impact test and using the voice communication channel between the vehicle and the PSAP test point.’; ‘2.3.1. The sustained functionality of the audio equipment shall be verified by performing a test eCall after the impact test and using the voice communication channel between the vehicle and the PSAP test point.’;
‘2.3.1. The sustained functionality of the audio equipment shall be verified by performing a test eCall after the impact test and using the voice communication channel between the vehicle and the PSAP test point.’;
‘2.3.1. The sustained functionality of the audio equipment shall be verified by performing a test eCall after the impact test and using the voice communication channel between the vehicle and the PSAP test point.’;
(4) points 2.5. and 2.5.1. are replaced by the following:‘2.5.Test conditions2.5.1.Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network;(d)if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system;(e)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(f)an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’; 2.5.1. Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network;(d)if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system;(e)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(f)an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’; (a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point; (c) a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; (d) if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system; (e) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; (f) an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’;
2.5.1. Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network;(d)if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system;(e)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(f)an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’; (a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point; (c) a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; (d) if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system; (e) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; (f) an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point;
(c) a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network;
(d) if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system;
(e) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;
(f) an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’;
2.5.1. Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network;(d)if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system;(e)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(f)an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’; (a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point; (c) a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; (d) if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system; (e) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; (f) an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point;
(c) a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network;
(d) if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system;
(e) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;
(f) an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point;
(c) a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network;
(d) if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system;
(e) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;
(f) an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’;
(5) points 2.6. and 2.6.1. are replaced by the following:‘2.6.Test method2.6.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger via the in-vehicle HMI and wait until the loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are connected and ready for voice communication or perform a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.’; 2.6.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger via the in-vehicle HMI and wait until the loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are connected and ready for voice communication or perform a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.’;
2.6.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger via the in-vehicle HMI and wait until the loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are connected and ready for voice communication or perform a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.’;
2.6.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger via the in-vehicle HMI and wait until the loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are connected and ready for voice communication or perform a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.’;
(6) points 2.6.3. and 2.6.4. are replaced by the following:‘2.6.3.Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).2.6.4.If the requirements cannot be fulfilled due to impairments introduced by the PSAP test point or the transmission medium, the test eCall may be repeated, if required in an adapted test setup.’; ‘2.6.3. Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 2.6.4. If the requirements cannot be fulfilled due to impairments introduced by the PSAP test point or the transmission medium, the test eCall may be repeated, if required in an adapted test setup.’;
‘2.6.3. Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
2.6.4. If the requirements cannot be fulfilled due to impairments introduced by the PSAP test point or the transmission medium, the test eCall may be repeated, if required in an adapted test setup.’;
‘2.6.3. Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
2.6.4. If the requirements cannot be fulfilled due to impairments introduced by the PSAP test point or the transmission medium, the test eCall may be repeated, if required in an adapted test setup.’;
(7) in the Appendix, point 3.1. (c) is replaced by the following:‘(c)Zij kunnen de besluiten nemen.De meeste mensen hadden het wel door.’. ‘(c) Zij kunnen de besluiten nemen.De meeste mensen hadden het wel door.’.
‘(c) Zij kunnen de besluiten nemen.De meeste mensen hadden het wel door.’.
‘(c) Zij kunnen de besluiten nemen.De meeste mensen hadden het wel door.’.
(1) in point 1, the following point 1.1.1. is inserted after point 1.1.:‘1.1.1.In case of an optional TPS eCall system, the TPS eCall related tests set out in section 9.8 of standard EN 16454:2023 remain applicable for the Declaration of Conformity of eCall in-vehicle system after 31 December 2025.’; ‘1.1.1. In case of an optional TPS eCall system, the TPS eCall related tests set out in section 9.8 of standard EN 16454:2023 remain applicable for the Declaration of Conformity of eCall in-vehicle system after 31 December 2025.’;
‘1.1.1. In case of an optional TPS eCall system, the TPS eCall related tests set out in section 9.8 of standard EN 16454:2023 remain applicable for the Declaration of Conformity of eCall in-vehicle system after 31 December 2025.’;
‘1.1.1. In case of an optional TPS eCall system, the TPS eCall related tests set out in section 9.8 of standard EN 16454:2023 remain applicable for the Declaration of Conformity of eCall in-vehicle system after 31 December 2025.’;
(2) point 2.3. is replaced by the following:‘2.3.The deactivation of the 112-based system while the TPS system is active, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’; ‘2.3. The deactivation of the 112-based system while the TPS system is active, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’;
‘2.3. The deactivation of the 112-based system while the TPS system is active, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’;
‘2.3. The deactivation of the 112-based system while the TPS system is active, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’;
(3) points 2.3.1. to 2.3.4. are replaced by the following:‘2.3.1.Before performing the test eCall, ensure:(a)that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system;(d)that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(e)that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.2.3.2.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system.2.3.3.Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point;(b)data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and(c)no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall.2.3.4.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate TPSP test point command (e.g. hang up).’; ‘2.3.1. Before performing the test eCall, ensure:(a)that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system;(d)that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(e)that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. (a) that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system; (d) that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and (e) that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. 2.3.2. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system. 2.3.3. Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point;(b)data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and(c)no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall. (a) an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point; (b) data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and (c) no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall. 2.3.4. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate TPSP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
‘2.3.1. Before performing the test eCall, ensure:(a)that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system;(d)that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(e)that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. (a) that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system; (d) that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and (e) that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
(a) that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system;
(d) that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and
(e) that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
2.3.2. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system.
2.3.3. Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point;(b)data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and(c)no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall. (a) an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point; (b) data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and (c) no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall.
(a) an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point;
(b) data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and
(c) no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall.
2.3.4. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate TPSP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
‘2.3.1. Before performing the test eCall, ensure:(a)that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system;(d)that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(e)that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. (a) that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system; (d) that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and (e) that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
(a) that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system;
(d) that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and
(e) that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
(a) that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system;
(d) that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and
(e) that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
2.3.2. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system.
2.3.3. Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point;(b)data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and(c)no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall. (a) an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point; (b) data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and (c) no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall.
(a) an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point;
(b) data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and
(c) no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall.
(a) an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point;
(b) data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and
(c) no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall.
2.3.4. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate TPSP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
(4) point 2.4. is replaced by the following:‘2.4.The fall-back procedure and activation of the 112-based system, in the event that the TPS system does not function, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’; ‘2.4. The fall-back procedure and activation of the 112-based system, in the event that the TPS system does not function, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’;
‘2.4. The fall-back procedure and activation of the 112-based system, in the event that the TPS system does not function, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’;
‘2.4. The fall-back procedure and activation of the 112-based system, in the event that the TPS system does not function, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’;
(5) points 2.4.1. to 2.4.5. are replaced by the following:‘2.4.1.Modify the TPS system to simulate a failure, selected at the discretion of the technical service that shall result in a fall-back procedure based on the documentation provided by the manufacturer. Such selection shall be documented in the test report.2.4.2.Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(d)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.2.4.3.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system.2.4.4.Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and(b)an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded.2.4.5.Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’; ‘2.4.1. Modify the TPS system to simulate a failure, selected at the discretion of the technical service that shall result in a fall-back procedure based on the documentation provided by the manufacturer. Such selection shall be documented in the test report. 2.4.2. Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(d)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and (d) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. 2.4.3. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system. 2.4.4. Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and(b)an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded. (a) an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and (b) an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded. 2.4.5. Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
‘2.4.1. Modify the TPS system to simulate a failure, selected at the discretion of the technical service that shall result in a fall-back procedure based on the documentation provided by the manufacturer. Such selection shall be documented in the test report.
2.4.2. Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(d)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and (d) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and
(d) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
2.4.3. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system.
2.4.4. Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and(b)an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded. (a) an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and (b) an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded.
(a) an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and
(b) an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded.
2.4.5. Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
‘2.4.1. Modify the TPS system to simulate a failure, selected at the discretion of the technical service that shall result in a fall-back procedure based on the documentation provided by the manufacturer. Such selection shall be documented in the test report.
2.4.2. Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(d)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and (d) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and
(d) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and
(d) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
2.4.3. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system.
2.4.4. Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and(b)an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded. (a) an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and (b) an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded.
(a) an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and
(b) an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded.
(a) an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and
(b) an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded.
2.4.5. Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
(6) point 2.5. is deleted.
(1) point 1.3.1. is replaced by the following:‘1.3.1.The manufacturer shall provide the technical service and the type-approval authority with documentation in accordance with the Table, which shall contain for each item the technical principle applied to monitor the item.’; ‘1.3.1. The manufacturer shall provide the technical service and the type-approval authority with documentation in accordance with the Table, which shall contain for each item the technical principle applied to monitor the item.’;
‘1.3.1. The manufacturer shall provide the technical service and the type-approval authority with documentation in accordance with the Table, which shall contain for each item the technical principle applied to monitor the item.’;
‘1.3.1. The manufacturer shall provide the technical service and the type-approval authority with documentation in accordance with the Table, which shall contain for each item the technical principle applied to monitor the item.’;
(2) in the Table, the third row (the second item) is replaced by the following:‘Mobile network antenna is connected’ ‘Mobile network antenna is connected’
‘Mobile network antenna is connected’
‘Mobile network antenna is connected’
(3) in the Table, the fifth row (the fourth item) is replaced by the following:‘GNSS antenna is connected’ ‘GNSS antenna is connected’
‘GNSS antenna is connected’
‘GNSS antenna is connected’
(4) point 2.1.1. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.1.The following test shall be performed, separately for each of the items listed in the Table, on the vehicle with an eCall in-vehicle system installed in accordance with Article 5, on the STU in accordance with Article 7 or on the component, that is made part of a complete system for the purpose of the test, in accordance with Article 6.’; ‘2.1.1. The following test shall be performed, separately for each of the items listed in the Table, on the vehicle with an eCall in-vehicle system installed in accordance with Article 5, on the STU in accordance with Article 7 or on the component, that is made part of a complete system for the purpose of the test, in accordance with Article 6.’;
‘2.1.1. The following test shall be performed, separately for each of the items listed in the Table, on the vehicle with an eCall in-vehicle system installed in accordance with Article 5, on the STU in accordance with Article 7 or on the component, that is made part of a complete system for the purpose of the test, in accordance with Article 6.’;
‘2.1.1. The following test shall be performed, separately for each of the items listed in the Table, on the vehicle with an eCall in-vehicle system installed in accordance with Article 5, on the STU in accordance with Article 7 or on the component, that is made part of a complete system for the purpose of the test, in accordance with Article 6.’;
(5) point 2.1.2. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.2.Simulate a malfunction of the eCall system by introducing a critical failure monitored by the self-test function according to the technical documentation provided by the manufacturer. The manufacturer shall provide a list of the checks and a description of how to trigger them.’; ‘2.1.2. Simulate a malfunction of the eCall system by introducing a critical failure monitored by the self-test function according to the technical documentation provided by the manufacturer. The manufacturer shall provide a list of the checks and a description of how to trigger them.’;
‘2.1.2. Simulate a malfunction of the eCall system by introducing a critical failure monitored by the self-test function according to the technical documentation provided by the manufacturer. The manufacturer shall provide a list of the checks and a description of how to trigger them.’;
‘2.1.2. Simulate a malfunction of the eCall system by introducing a critical failure monitored by the self-test function according to the technical documentation provided by the manufacturer. The manufacturer shall provide a list of the checks and a description of how to trigger them.’;
(6) in point 2.1.5., the following sentence is added:‘For the failures which cannot be simulated or injected by the technical service, the manufactures shall provide a documentation describing the test procedure and the test results to the technical service.’;
(7) point 3.1. is replaced by the following:‘3.1.When the manufacturer submits an application for revision or extension of an existing type-approval for the purpose of including an alternative GNSS antenna, electronic control unit, mobile network antenna and/or power source components, no retesting of 112-based eCall in-vehicle system components shall be required for the purpose of fulfilling the requirements of this Annex, provided that those type-approved components possess at least the same functional features and that they are covered by this Annex in accordance with Article 6(3).’; ‘3.1. When the manufacturer submits an application for revision or extension of an existing type-approval for the purpose of including an alternative GNSS antenna, electronic control unit, mobile network antenna and/or power source components, no retesting of 112-based eCall in-vehicle system components shall be required for the purpose of fulfilling the requirements of this Annex, provided that those type-approved components possess at least the same functional features and that they are covered by this Annex in accordance with Article 6(3).’;
‘3.1. When the manufacturer submits an application for revision or extension of an existing type-approval for the purpose of including an alternative GNSS antenna, electronic control unit, mobile network antenna and/or power source components, no retesting of 112-based eCall in-vehicle system components shall be required for the purpose of fulfilling the requirements of this Annex, provided that those type-approved components possess at least the same functional features and that they are covered by this Annex in accordance with Article 6(3).’;
‘3.1. When the manufacturer submits an application for revision or extension of an existing type-approval for the purpose of including an alternative GNSS antenna, electronic control unit, mobile network antenna and/or power source components, no retesting of 112-based eCall in-vehicle system components shall be required for the purpose of fulfilling the requirements of this Annex, provided that those type-approved components possess at least the same functional features and that they are covered by this Annex in accordance with Article 6(3).’;
(8) the following point 4 is added:‘4.Technical requirements to enable periodic roadworthiness tests4.1.PurposeThe purpose shall be to verify the following features of the eCall system:(a)its correct operational status, by visual observation of the failure warning signal status following the activation of the vehicle master control switch and any bulb check. Where the failure warning signal is only displayed in a common space (the area on which two or more information functions or symbols may be displayed, but not simultaneously), it must be checked first that the common space is functional prior to the failure warning signal status check;(b)the correct accuracy of the Minimum Set of Data (by generating and reading current MSD), the correct function and condition of the eCall components and the backup-battery (if applicable), by the use of an electronic vehicle interface;(c)the software integrity, by external verification of version information, hash values and system configurations against reference data;(d)the correct functionality of the voice communication, by performing an audio echo and speaker test using the vehicle interface.4.2.Requirements4.2.1.The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be able to provide the information to perform the methods of testing specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU using the electronic vehicle interface.4.2.2.The manufacturer shall make available the technical information, which shall contain the instructions for reading out the information or performing the checks related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU.4.3.Test procedure4.3.1.It shall be verified that the information related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13 of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU, can be read out from the eCall system using the electronic vehicle interface according to the instructions of the manufacturer.4.3.2.It shall be verified that an echo and speaker test can be performed to check the correct functionality of the voice communication via the vehicle interface.’. (a) its correct operational status, by visual observation of the failure warning signal status following the activation of the vehicle master control switch and any bulb check. Where the failure warning signal is only displayed in a common space (the area on which two or more information functions or symbols may be displayed, but not simultaneously), it must be checked first that the common space is functional prior to the failure warning signal status check; (b) the correct accuracy of the Minimum Set of Data (by generating and reading current MSD), the correct function and condition of the eCall components and the backup-battery (if applicable), by the use of an electronic vehicle interface; (c) the software integrity, by external verification of version information, hash values and system configurations against reference data; (d) the correct functionality of the voice communication, by performing an audio echo and speaker test using the vehicle interface. 4.2.1. The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be able to provide the information to perform the methods of testing specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU using the electronic vehicle interface. 4.2.2. The manufacturer shall make available the technical information, which shall contain the instructions for reading out the information or performing the checks related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU. 4.3.1. It shall be verified that the information related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13 of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU, can be read out from the eCall system using the electronic vehicle interface according to the instructions of the manufacturer. 4.3.2. It shall be verified that an echo and speaker test can be performed to check the correct functionality of the voice communication via the vehicle interface.’.
(a) its correct operational status, by visual observation of the failure warning signal status following the activation of the vehicle master control switch and any bulb check. Where the failure warning signal is only displayed in a common space (the area on which two or more information functions or symbols may be displayed, but not simultaneously), it must be checked first that the common space is functional prior to the failure warning signal status check;
(b) the correct accuracy of the Minimum Set of Data (by generating and reading current MSD), the correct function and condition of the eCall components and the backup-battery (if applicable), by the use of an electronic vehicle interface;
(c) the software integrity, by external verification of version information, hash values and system configurations against reference data;
(d) the correct functionality of the voice communication, by performing an audio echo and speaker test using the vehicle interface.
4.2.1. The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be able to provide the information to perform the methods of testing specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU using the electronic vehicle interface.
4.2.2. The manufacturer shall make available the technical information, which shall contain the instructions for reading out the information or performing the checks related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU.
4.3.1. It shall be verified that the information related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13 of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU, can be read out from the eCall system using the electronic vehicle interface according to the instructions of the manufacturer.
4.3.2. It shall be verified that an echo and speaker test can be performed to check the correct functionality of the voice communication via the vehicle interface.’.
(a) its correct operational status, by visual observation of the failure warning signal status following the activation of the vehicle master control switch and any bulb check. Where the failure warning signal is only displayed in a common space (the area on which two or more information functions or symbols may be displayed, but not simultaneously), it must be checked first that the common space is functional prior to the failure warning signal status check;
(b) the correct accuracy of the Minimum Set of Data (by generating and reading current MSD), the correct function and condition of the eCall components and the backup-battery (if applicable), by the use of an electronic vehicle interface;
(c) the software integrity, by external verification of version information, hash values and system configurations against reference data;
(d) the correct functionality of the voice communication, by performing an audio echo and speaker test using the vehicle interface.
4.2.1. The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be able to provide the information to perform the methods of testing specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU using the electronic vehicle interface.
4.2.2. The manufacturer shall make available the technical information, which shall contain the instructions for reading out the information or performing the checks related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU.
4.3.1. It shall be verified that the information related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13 of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU, can be read out from the eCall system using the electronic vehicle interface according to the instructions of the manufacturer.
4.3.2. It shall be verified that an echo and speaker test can be performed to check the correct functionality of the voice communication via the vehicle interface.’.
(1) Part I is amended as follows:(a)point 2.1. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’;(b)point 2.2. is deleted;(c)in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’;(d)points 3.2. and 3.2.1. are deleted;(e)point 3.2.2. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;(f)points 3.2.3. and 3.2.4. are deleted;(g)in section 4, the title is replaced by the following:‘4.Test method’;(h)points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;(i)in section 4, the following points 4.3., 4.4. and 4.5. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240).4.5.Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’;(j)the following section 5 is added:‘5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).5.2.The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’; (a) point 2.1. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’; ‘2.1. The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’; (b) point 2.2. is deleted; (c) in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’; ‘3. Test conditions’; (d) points 3.2. and 3.2.1. are deleted; (e) point 3.2.2. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; ‘3.2. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (f) points 3.2.3. and 3.2.4. are deleted; (g) in section 4, the title is replaced by the following:‘4.Test method’; (h) points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; ‘4.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. 4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; (i) in section 4, the following points 4.3., 4.4. and 4.5. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240).4.5.Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’; ‘4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 4.4. Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240). 4.5. Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’; (j) the following section 5 is added:‘5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).5.2.The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’; 5.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour). 5.2. The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’;
(a) point 2.1. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’; ‘2.1. The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’;
‘2.1. The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’;
(b) point 2.2. is deleted;
(c) in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’; ‘3. Test conditions’;
‘3. Test conditions’;
(d) points 3.2. and 3.2.1. are deleted;
(e) point 3.2.2. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; ‘3.2. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.2. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(f) points 3.2.3. and 3.2.4. are deleted;
(g) in section 4, the title is replaced by the following:‘4.Test method’;
(h) points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; ‘4.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. 4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
‘4.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
(i) in section 4, the following points 4.3., 4.4. and 4.5. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240).4.5.Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’; ‘4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 4.4. Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240). 4.5. Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’;
‘4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240).
4.5. Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’;
(j) the following section 5 is added:‘5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).5.2.The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’; 5.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour). 5.2. The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’;
5.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).
5.2. The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’;
(a) point 2.1. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’; ‘2.1. The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’;
‘2.1. The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’;
‘2.1. The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’;
(b) point 2.2. is deleted;
(c) in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’; ‘3. Test conditions’;
‘3. Test conditions’;
‘3. Test conditions’;
(d) points 3.2. and 3.2.1. are deleted;
(e) point 3.2.2. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; ‘3.2. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.2. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.2. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(f) points 3.2.3. and 3.2.4. are deleted;
(g) in section 4, the title is replaced by the following:‘4.Test method’;
(h) points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; ‘4.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. 4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
‘4.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
‘4.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
(i) in section 4, the following points 4.3., 4.4. and 4.5. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240).4.5.Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’; ‘4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 4.4. Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240). 4.5. Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’;
‘4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240).
4.5. Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’;
‘4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240).
4.5. Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’;
(j) the following section 5 is added:‘5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).5.2.The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’; 5.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour). 5.2. The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’;
5.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).
5.2. The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’;
5.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).
5.2. The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’;
(2) Part II is amended as follows:(a)in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;(b)in section 4, points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced with the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;(c)in section 4, the following points 4.3. and 4.4. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; (a) in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; ‘3.3. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (b) in section 4, points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced with the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; ‘4.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. 4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; (c) in section 4, the following points 4.3. and 4.4. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; ‘4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 4.4. 13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
(a) in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; ‘3.3. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.3. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(b) in section 4, points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced with the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; ‘4.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. 4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
‘4.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
(c) in section 4, the following points 4.3. and 4.4. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; ‘4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 4.4. 13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
‘4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. 13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
(a) in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; ‘3.3. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.3. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.3. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(b) in section 4, points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced with the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; ‘4.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. 4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
‘4.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
‘4.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
(c) in section 4, the following points 4.3. and 4.4. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; ‘4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 4.4. 13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
‘4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. 13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
‘4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. 13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
(3) Part III is amended as follows:(a)point 3.1 is replaced by the following:‘3.1.The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’;(b)in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;(c)point 4.1. is replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’;(d)in section 4, the following points 4.2., 4.3 and 4.4. are added:‘4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; (a) point 3.1 is replaced by the following:‘3.1.The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’; ‘3.1. The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’; (b) in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; ‘3.3. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (c) point 4.1. is replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’; ‘4.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’; (d) in section 4, the following points 4.2., 4.3 and 4.4. are added:‘4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; ‘4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point. 4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 4.4. The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
(a) point 3.1 is replaced by the following:‘3.1.The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’; ‘3.1. The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’;
‘3.1. The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’;
(b) in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; ‘3.3. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.3. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(c) point 4.1. is replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’; ‘4.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’;
‘4.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’;
(d) in section 4, the following points 4.2., 4.3 and 4.4. are added:‘4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; ‘4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point. 4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 4.4. The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
‘4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.
4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
(a) point 3.1 is replaced by the following:‘3.1.The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’; ‘3.1. The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’;
‘3.1. The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’;
‘3.1. The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’;
(b) in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; ‘3.3. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.3. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.3. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(c) point 4.1. is replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’; ‘4.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’;
‘4.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’;
‘4.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’;
(d) in section 4, the following points 4.2., 4.3 and 4.4. are added:‘4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; ‘4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point. 4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 4.4. The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
‘4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.
4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
‘4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.
4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
(4) Part IV is amended as follows:(a)in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’;(b)point 3.2 is replaced by the following:‘3.2.The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’;(c)point 3.2.1. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.1.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;(d)point 3.4 is deleted;(e)the following sections 4 and 5 are added:‘4.Test method4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated.4.5.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.4.6.The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored.5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory.5.2.The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’. (a) in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’; (b) point 3.2 is replaced by the following:‘3.2.The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’; ‘3.2. The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’; (c) point 3.2.1. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.1.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; ‘3.2.1. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (d) point 3.4 is deleted; (e) the following sections 4 and 5 are added:‘4.Test method4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated.4.5.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.4.6.The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored.5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory.5.2.The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’. 4.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. 4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point. 4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 4.4. If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated. 4.5. The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester. 4.6. The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored. 5.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory. 5.2. The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’.
(a) in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’;
(b) point 3.2 is replaced by the following:‘3.2.The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’; ‘3.2. The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’;
‘3.2. The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’;
(c) point 3.2.1. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.1.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; ‘3.2.1. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.2.1. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(d) point 3.4 is deleted;
(e) the following sections 4 and 5 are added:‘4.Test method4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated.4.5.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.4.6.The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored.5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory.5.2.The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’. 4.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. 4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point. 4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 4.4. If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated. 4.5. The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester. 4.6. The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored. 5.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory. 5.2. The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’.
4.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.
4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated.
4.5. The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.
4.6. The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored.
5.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory.
5.2. The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’.
(a) in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’;
(b) point 3.2 is replaced by the following:‘3.2.The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’; ‘3.2. The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’;
‘3.2. The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’;
‘3.2. The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’;
(c) point 3.2.1. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.1.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; ‘3.2.1. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.2.1. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.2.1. Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; (a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; (b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; (c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and (d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(d) point 3.4 is deleted;
(e) the following sections 4 and 5 are added:‘4.Test method4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated.4.5.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.4.6.The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored.5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory.5.2.The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’. 4.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. 4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point. 4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). 4.4. If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated. 4.5. The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester. 4.6. The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored. 5.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory. 5.2. The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’.
4.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.
4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated.
4.5. The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.
4.6. The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored.
5.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory.
5.2. The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’.
4.1. Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
4.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.
4.3. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated.
4.5. The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.
4.6. The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored.
5.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory.
5.2. The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’.
3.1.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
3.1.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.
3.1.3. Disconnect the main power source.
3.1.4. Read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point.
3.1.5. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
3.1.6. Wait for 56 minutes after the call was ended.
3.1.7. Initiate a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.
3.1.8. If the call is automatically accepted, read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point, otherwise the test is finished.
3.2.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if the eCall STU is capable to communicate for the required period, as specified in point 2.
3.2.2. The incapacity of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system to communicate for the period referred to in point 2 constitutes a failure.
THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2015/758 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 29 April 2015 concerning type-approval requirements for the deployment of the eCall in-vehicle system based on the 112 service and amending Directive 2007/46/EC(1), and in particular Article 5(8) and (9) and Article 6(12) thereof,
(1) Regulation (EU) 2015/758 requires all new types of vehicles of categories M1and N1to be equipped with a 112-based eCall in-vehicle system.
(2) The Commission’s Communication on a Sustainable and Smart Mobility Strategy(2)identifies the need to adapt the eCall legal framework to new telecommunication technologies.
(3) Regulation (EU) 2015/758 contains a list of European standards and technical specifications, which the technical requirements for the approval of eCall systems and vehicles equipped with such systems are based on.
(4) The European Committee for Standardisation (CEN) has adopted new standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024 succeeding respectively the technical specifications CEN/TS 17184:2022 and CEN/TS 17240:2018. In addition, the new version of the standard EN 16072:2025 contains relevant changes for eCall. Accordingly, the references to the respective technical specifications and standards in Article 5(8) of Regulation (EU) 2015/758 should be updated.
(5) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79(3)establishes detailed technical requirements and test procedures for the approval of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle systems and motor vehicles equipped with such systems. Those technical requirements and test procedures should be revised to ensure technologic neutrality and to allow technology agnostic implementation of the test methods.
(6) In order to ensure the effectiveness of the eCall in-vehicle system self-test, it is necessary to provide that the failure modes should be tested separately.
(7) In order to ensure the readiness of the eCall in-vehicle system for the periodic roadworthiness tests in accordance with Directive 2014/45/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council(4), it is necessary to provide the specific technical requirements to be met at type-approval to facilitate the roadworthiness testing throughout the lifecycle of the motor vehicles.
(8) To ensure that the verification of the lack of traceability of the eCall in-vehicle is performed without ambiguity it is necessary to specify the expected behaviour after the eCall is emitted.
(9) In order to ensure that the structure of the test procedures is consistent throughout the Annexes to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79, those annexes should clearly distinguish between the test conditions, the test methods and the assessment.
(10) It is necessary to set out provisions allowing for the extension of approvals granted before 1 January 2027 to 112-based eCall in-vehicle systems operating over circuit-switched communication networks to ensure that they continue to serve the purpose after the transition to packet-switched communication technology.
(11) In order to make sure that the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system remains operational in case the main power supply of the vehicle is disconnected, it is necessary to provide test procedures for the back-up power supply (if fitted) and the secondary vehicle power supply, which might be used after a road accident with the vehicle.
(12) Therefore, Regulation (EU) 2015/758 and Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 should be amended accordingly.
(13) In order to provide Member States, national authorities and manufacturers with sufficient lead time to implement the changes, the mandatory application of the standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024 should be deferred to 1 January 2027. In addition, it is necessary to set out transitional provisions for the implementation of the new requirements regarding the back-up power supply and the secondary vehicle power supply of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system and regarding the readiness for periodic roadworthiness tests of new types of vehicles with such systems,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Amendments to Regulation (EU) 2015/758
Article 1
In Article 5(8), second subparagraph of Regulation (EU) 2015/758, points (a) to (c) are amended as follows:
(1)
in point (a), ‘EN 16072:2022’ is replaced by ‘EN 16072:2025’.
(2)
in point (b), ‘CEN/TS 17184:2022’ is replaced by ‘EN 17184:2024’.
(3)
in point (c), ‘CEN/TS 17240:2018’ is replaced by ‘EN 17240:2024’.

Amendments to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79
Article 2
Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 is amended as follows:
(1)
in Article 4, the following point (12) is added:
‘(12)
‘‘test eCall’’ means an eCall for testing purposes, which can be clearly distinguished from a real eCall or which does not reach the Public Safety answering Point (‘‘PSAP’’).’;
(2)
in Article 5, the following paragraph (4) is added:
‘4. For the purpose of extending the EC type-approval granted in accordance with paragraph (1) before 1 January 2027, the technical service may exempt 112-based eCall in-vehicle system from full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and from the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III. The changes of the modified 112-based eCall in-vehicle system as compared to the originally approved system shall be documented and explained by the manufacturer to the technical service and the type-approval authority:
(a)
Where the communication part is modified without impacting other components of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system and a vehicle crash-test is conducted for other purposes, the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be included and the full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III shall be conducted.
(b)
Where the modification of the communication part of a 112-based eCall in-vehicle system has an impact on its other parts, the full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III shall be conducted.’
(3)
in Article 7, paragraph (1), is replaced by the following:
‘1. EC type-approval of a 112-based eCall in-vehicle STU shall be subject to the STU passing the tests laid down in Annexes I, IV, VI, VII and VIII and complying with the relevant requirements laid down in those Annexes. In case the STU is fitted with a back-up power source, it shall comply with the requirements and be subject to the test procedure laid down in Annex X.’
(4)
Annex I is amended in accordance with Annex I to this Regulation;
(5)
Annex II is amended in accordance with Annex II to this Regulation;
(6)
Annex III is amended in accordance with Annex III to this Regulation;
(7)
Annex IV is amended in accordance with Annex IV to this Regulation;
(8)
Annex VII is amended in accordance with Annex V to this Regulation;
(9)
Annex VIII is amended in accordance with Annex VI to this Regulation;
(10)
Annex VII to this Regulation is added as Annex X.

Transitional provisions
Article 3
1. With effect from 1 January 2026, national authorities shall refuse to grant new type approvals or extensions for existing approvals for vehicles, systems, components or separate technical units, where those do not comply with the technical specifications set out in CEN/TS 17184:2022 and CEN/TS 17240:2018 or with the standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024, if a manufacturer so requests.
2. With effect from 1 January 2027, national authorities shall refuse to grant new type approvals for vehicles, systems, components or separate technical units, where those do not comply with the standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024.
3. With effect from 1 January 2027, in the case of new vehicles approved after 31 March 2018 in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2015/758 which do not comply with the technical specifications set out in CEN/TS 17184:2022 and CEN/TS 17240:2018 or with the standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024, national authorities shall consider the certificates of conformity to be no longer valid for the purposes of Article 48(1) of Regulation (EU) 2018/858.
4. With effect from 1 January 2028, in the case of new vehicles approved after 31 March 2018 in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2015/758 which do not comply with the standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024, national authorities shall consider the certificates of conformity to be no longer valid for the purposes of Article 48(1) of Regulation (EU) 2018/858.
5. With effect from 1 January 2028, national authorities shall refuse to grant new type approvals for vehicles, systems or separate technical units, where those do not comply with the technical requirements to enable periodic roadworthiness tests in accordance with Annex VII to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 as amended by this Regulation.
6. With effect from 1 January 2027, national authorities shall refuse to grant new type approvals for vehicles, systems or separate technical units, where those do not comply with the requirements for the performance of the back-up power supply in accordance with Annex X to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79.

Entry into force and application
Article 4
This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.
Article 1(2) and (3) shall apply from 1 January 2027.

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2015/758 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 29 April 2015 concerning type-approval requirements for the deployment of the eCall in-vehicle system based on the 112 service and amending Directive 2007/46/EC(1), and in particular Article 5(8) and (9) and Article 6(12) thereof,
(1) Regulation (EU) 2015/758 requires all new types of vehicles of categories M1and N1to be equipped with a 112-based eCall in-vehicle system.
(2) The Commission’s Communication on a Sustainable and Smart Mobility Strategy(2)identifies the need to adapt the eCall legal framework to new telecommunication technologies.
(3) Regulation (EU) 2015/758 contains a list of European standards and technical specifications, which the technical requirements for the approval of eCall systems and vehicles equipped with such systems are based on.
(4) The European Committee for Standardisation (CEN) has adopted new standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024 succeeding respectively the technical specifications CEN/TS 17184:2022 and CEN/TS 17240:2018. In addition, the new version of the standard EN 16072:2025 contains relevant changes for eCall. Accordingly, the references to the respective technical specifications and standards in Article 5(8) of Regulation (EU) 2015/758 should be updated.
(5) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79(3)establishes detailed technical requirements and test procedures for the approval of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle systems and motor vehicles equipped with such systems. Those technical requirements and test procedures should be revised to ensure technologic neutrality and to allow technology agnostic implementation of the test methods.
(6) In order to ensure the effectiveness of the eCall in-vehicle system self-test, it is necessary to provide that the failure modes should be tested separately.
(7) In order to ensure the readiness of the eCall in-vehicle system for the periodic roadworthiness tests in accordance with Directive 2014/45/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council(4), it is necessary to provide the specific technical requirements to be met at type-approval to facilitate the roadworthiness testing throughout the lifecycle of the motor vehicles.
(8) To ensure that the verification of the lack of traceability of the eCall in-vehicle is performed without ambiguity it is necessary to specify the expected behaviour after the eCall is emitted.
(9) In order to ensure that the structure of the test procedures is consistent throughout the Annexes to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79, those annexes should clearly distinguish between the test conditions, the test methods and the assessment.
(10) It is necessary to set out provisions allowing for the extension of approvals granted before 1 January 2027 to 112-based eCall in-vehicle systems operating over circuit-switched communication networks to ensure that they continue to serve the purpose after the transition to packet-switched communication technology.
(11) In order to make sure that the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system remains operational in case the main power supply of the vehicle is disconnected, it is necessary to provide test procedures for the back-up power supply (if fitted) and the secondary vehicle power supply, which might be used after a road accident with the vehicle.
(12) Therefore, Regulation (EU) 2015/758 and Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 should be amended accordingly.
(13) In order to provide Member States, national authorities and manufacturers with sufficient lead time to implement the changes, the mandatory application of the standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024 should be deferred to 1 January 2027. In addition, it is necessary to set out transitional provisions for the implementation of the new requirements regarding the back-up power supply and the secondary vehicle power supply of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system and regarding the readiness for periodic roadworthiness tests of new types of vehicles with such systems,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Amendments to Regulation (EU) 2015/758

In Article 5(8), second subparagraph of Regulation (EU) 2015/758, points (a) to (c) are amended as follows:
(1)
in point (a), ‘EN 16072:2022’ is replaced by ‘EN 16072:2025’.
(2)
in point (b), ‘CEN/TS 17184:2022’ is replaced by ‘EN 17184:2024’.
(3)
in point (c), ‘CEN/TS 17240:2018’ is replaced by ‘EN 17240:2024’.

Amendments to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79

Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 is amended as follows:
(1)
in Article 4, the following point (12) is added:
‘(12)
‘‘test eCall’’ means an eCall for testing purposes, which can be clearly distinguished from a real eCall or which does not reach the Public Safety answering Point (‘‘PSAP’’).’;
(2)
in Article 5, the following paragraph (4) is added:
‘4. For the purpose of extending the EC type-approval granted in accordance with paragraph (1) before 1 January 2027, the technical service may exempt 112-based eCall in-vehicle system from full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and from the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III. The changes of the modified 112-based eCall in-vehicle system as compared to the originally approved system shall be documented and explained by the manufacturer to the technical service and the type-approval authority:
(a)
Where the communication part is modified without impacting other components of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system and a vehicle crash-test is conducted for other purposes, the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be included and the full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III shall be conducted.
(b)
Where the modification of the communication part of a 112-based eCall in-vehicle system has an impact on its other parts, the full-scale impact test as specified in Annex II and the subsequent audio equipment test as specified in Annex III shall be conducted.’
(3)
in Article 7, paragraph (1), is replaced by the following:
‘1. EC type-approval of a 112-based eCall in-vehicle STU shall be subject to the STU passing the tests laid down in Annexes I, IV, VI, VII and VIII and complying with the relevant requirements laid down in those Annexes. In case the STU is fitted with a back-up power source, it shall comply with the requirements and be subject to the test procedure laid down in Annex X.’
(4)
Annex I is amended in accordance with Annex I to this Regulation;
(5)
Annex II is amended in accordance with Annex II to this Regulation;
(6)
Annex III is amended in accordance with Annex III to this Regulation;
(7)
Annex IV is amended in accordance with Annex IV to this Regulation;
(8)
Annex VII is amended in accordance with Annex V to this Regulation;
(9)
Annex VIII is amended in accordance with Annex VI to this Regulation;
(10)
Annex VII to this Regulation is added as Annex X.

Transitional provisions

1. With effect from 1 January 2026, national authorities shall refuse to grant new type approvals or extensions for existing approvals for vehicles, systems, components or separate technical units, where those do not comply with the technical specifications set out in CEN/TS 17184:2022 and CEN/TS 17240:2018 or with the standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024, if a manufacturer so requests.
2. With effect from 1 January 2027, national authorities shall refuse to grant new type approvals for vehicles, systems, components or separate technical units, where those do not comply with the standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024.
3. With effect from 1 January 2027, in the case of new vehicles approved after 31 March 2018 in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2015/758 which do not comply with the technical specifications set out in CEN/TS 17184:2022 and CEN/TS 17240:2018 or with the standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024, national authorities shall consider the certificates of conformity to be no longer valid for the purposes of Article 48(1) of Regulation (EU) 2018/858.
4. With effect from 1 January 2028, in the case of new vehicles approved after 31 March 2018 in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2015/758 which do not comply with the standards EN 17184:2024 and EN 17240:2024, national authorities shall consider the certificates of conformity to be no longer valid for the purposes of Article 48(1) of Regulation (EU) 2018/858.
5. With effect from 1 January 2028, national authorities shall refuse to grant new type approvals for vehicles, systems or separate technical units, where those do not comply with the technical requirements to enable periodic roadworthiness tests in accordance with Annex VII to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 as amended by this Regulation.
6. With effect from 1 January 2027, national authorities shall refuse to grant new type approvals for vehicles, systems or separate technical units, where those do not comply with the requirements for the performance of the back-up power supply in accordance with Annex X to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79.

Entry into force and application

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.
Article 1(2) and (3) shall apply from 1 January 2027.
ANNEX IAnnex I to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 is amended as follows:

(1) | point 1.1.4. is replaced by the following:‘1.1.4.Position determination: The eCall system or representative arrangement shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’; | ‘1.1.4. | Position determination: The eCall system or representative arrangement shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’;
‘1.1.4. | Position determination: The eCall system or representative arrangement shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’;
(2) | in point 2.2.4., the following sentence is added:‘Any such agreement shall be documented in the test report.’;
(3) | point 2.4.2. is replaced by the following:‘2.4.2.The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall using the power source subjected to the high-severity deceleration.’; | ‘2.4.2. | The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall using the power source subjected to the high-severity deceleration.’;
‘2.4.2. | The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall using the power source subjected to the high-severity deceleration.’;
(4) | in point 2.4.3. the introductory phrase is replaced by the following:‘2.4.3.Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:’; | ‘2.4.3. | Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:’;
‘2.4.3. | Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:’;
(5) | point 2.4.3.(c) is replaced by the following:‘(c)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, shall be applied for any test eCall;’; | ‘(c) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, shall be applied for any test eCall;’;
‘(c) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, shall be applied for any test eCall;’;
(6) | point 2.4.4. is replaced by the following:‘2.4.4.Perform a test eCall by applying a trigger according to the instructions of the manufacturer.’; | ‘2.4.4. | Perform a test eCall by applying a trigger according to the instructions of the manufacturer.’;
‘2.4.4. | Perform a test eCall by applying a trigger according to the instructions of the manufacturer.’;
(7) | point 2.4.5.(c) is replaced by the following:‘(c)Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as specified in point 2.5 by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’.(d)Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.;’ | ‘(c) | Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as specified in point 2.5 by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. | (d) | Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.;’
‘(c) | Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as specified in point 2.5 by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’.
(d) | Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.;’
(8) | point 2.4.6. is replaced by the following:‘2.4.6.Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’; | ‘2.4.6. | Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
‘2.4.6. | Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
(9) | points 2.7.1.1. and 2.7.1.2. are replaced by the following:‘2.7.1.1.It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will be performed over-the-air via a non-public (i.e. simulated) mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.2.7.1.2.The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.’; | ‘2.7.1.1. | It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will be performed over-the-air via a non-public (i.e. simulated) mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point. | 2.7.1.2. | The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.’;
‘2.7.1.1. | It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will be performed over-the-air via a non-public (i.e. simulated) mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.
2.7.1.2. | The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.’;
(10) | points 2.7.2.1., 2.7.2.2. and 2.7.2.3. are replaced by the following:‘2.7.2.1.It shall be ensured that a regular call to a long number is emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system (instead of an emergency call) and is performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.In case where this procedure is technically not possible, an emergency call emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system via a public mobile network in packet-switched domain can be used instead, if agreed by the manufacturer or technical service with the genuine PSAP or if a technical solution has been set up to route the eCall to a dedicated PSAP test point.2.7.2.2.The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.2.7.2.3.If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the TPSP test point.’; | ‘2.7.2.1. | It shall be ensured that a regular call to a long number is emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system (instead of an emergency call) and is performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.In case where this procedure is technically not possible, an emergency call emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system via a public mobile network in packet-switched domain can be used instead, if agreed by the manufacturer or technical service with the genuine PSAP or if a technical solution has been set up to route the eCall to a dedicated PSAP test point. | 2.7.2.2. | The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests. | 2.7.2.3. | If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the TPSP test point.’;
‘2.7.2.1. | It shall be ensured that a regular call to a long number is emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system (instead of an emergency call) and is performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.In case where this procedure is technically not possible, an emergency call emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system via a public mobile network in packet-switched domain can be used instead, if agreed by the manufacturer or technical service with the genuine PSAP or if a technical solution has been set up to route the eCall to a dedicated PSAP test point.
2.7.2.2. | The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.
2.7.2.3. | If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed over-the-air via a public mobile network and routed to the TPSP test point.’;
(11) | points 2.7.3.1., 2.7.3.2. and 2.7.3.3. are replaced by the following:‘2.7.3.1.It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will only be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.2.7.3.2.The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.2.7.3.3.If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated TPSP test point.’; | ‘2.7.3.1. | It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will only be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point. | 2.7.3.2. | The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests. | 2.7.3.3. | If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated TPSP test point.’;
‘2.7.3.1. | It shall be ensured that an emergency call emitted by the 112-based system will only be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated PSAP test point.
2.7.3.2. | The dedicated PSAP test point during the test procedures shall be a PSAP simulator under the control of the technical service, compliant with the applicable EN standards and certified in accordance with EN 16454 and EN 17240. It shall be equipped with an audio interface to allow voice communication tests.
2.7.3.3. | If applicable, it shall be ensured that a regular call emitted by the TPS system will be performed via a wired connection with a dedicated network simulator (bypassing any mobile network antenna) and routed to the dedicated TPSP test point.’;
(12) | point 2.8.1. is replaced by the following:‘These procedures shall apply for the purposes of type-approval of a 112-based eCall in-vehicle system component in accordance with Article 6 of this Regulation.’;
(13) | point 2.8.2.2. is replaced by the following:‘2.8.2.2.The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall according to paragraphs 2.4.3 to 2.4.6.’; | ‘2.8.2.2. | The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall according to paragraphs 2.4.3 to 2.4.6.’;
‘2.8.2.2. | The performance requirements shall be verified by performing a test eCall according to paragraphs 2.4.3 to 2.4.6.’;
(14) | points 2.8.2.3, 2.8.2.4, 2.8.2.5 and 2.8.2.6 are deleted.

ANNEX IIAnnex II to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 is amended as follows:

(1) | point 1.1.6. is replaced by the following:‘1.1.6.Position determination: The eCall system shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’; | ‘1.1.6. | Position determination: The eCall system shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’;
‘1.1.6. | Position determination: The eCall system shall be able to determine accurately the up-to-date vehicle location, including two recent vehicle locations before the generation of the data for the MSD.’;
(2) | in point 2.3.3., point (c) is replaced by the following:‘(c)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;’; | ‘(c) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;’;
‘(c) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;’;
(3) | point 2.4 is replaced by the following:‘2.4.Power-Supply Test procedureThe test procedure described in points 2.4.1 to 2.4.6. shall apply where Annex X is applicable and any of the following conditions is met:(a)the eCall STU was not subject of the test laid down in Annex X,(b)the eCall STU was subject of the test laid down in Annex X but the back-up power supply in the vehicle is shared with other devices.2.4.1.If the automatic eCall was terminated, trigger a manual test eCall.2.4.2.Read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point. Alternatively, the test method referred to in point 2.6.2. of Annex III can be performed at this step if the duration of 5 minutes is not exceeded.2.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).2.4.4.Wait for 56 minutes after the call was ended.2.4.5.Initiate a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.2.4.6.If the call is automatically accepted, read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point, otherwise the test is finished.’; | (a) | the eCall STU was not subject of the test laid down in Annex X, | (b) | the eCall STU was subject of the test laid down in Annex X but the back-up power supply in the vehicle is shared with other devices. | | 2.4.1. | If the automatic eCall was terminated, trigger a manual test eCall. | | 2.4.2. | Read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point. Alternatively, the test method referred to in point 2.6.2. of Annex III can be performed at this step if the duration of 5 minutes is not exceeded. | | 2.4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). | | 2.4.4. | Wait for 56 minutes after the call was ended. | | 2.4.5. | Initiate a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system. | | 2.4.6. | If the call is automatically accepted, read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point, otherwise the test is finished.’;
(a) | the eCall STU was not subject of the test laid down in Annex X,
(b) | the eCall STU was subject of the test laid down in Annex X but the back-up power supply in the vehicle is shared with other devices.
| 2.4.1. | If the automatic eCall was terminated, trigger a manual test eCall.
| 2.4.2. | Read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point. Alternatively, the test method referred to in point 2.6.2. of Annex III can be performed at this step if the duration of 5 minutes is not exceeded.
| 2.4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
| 2.4.4. | Wait for 56 minutes after the call was ended.
| 2.4.5. | Initiate a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.
| 2.4.6. | If the call is automatically accepted, read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point, otherwise the test is finished.’;
(4) | point 2.7. is deleted;
(5) | point 3 is added:‘3.Verification procedure3.1.Verification of the Minimum Set of Data (MSD)3.1.1.Verify each of the following items in at least one of the test eCalls:(a)Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’.(b)Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible).(c)Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded.(d)Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application.(e)Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall.(f)Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.(g)Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds.3.2.If the automatic test eCall could not be performed successfully due to vehicle-external factors, it shall be permissible to verify the automatic trigger following the impact via the internal record transaction function of the in-vehicle system. This register shall be capable to store received trigger signals in non-volatile memory. The test engineer shall have access to the data stored in the in-vehicle system and shall verify that no record of automatic trigger signal is stored before the impact event and that a record of an automatic trigger signal is stored after the impact event.3.3.If the test eCall was performed with the vehicle connected to an off-vehicle power supply (in cases where the impact test was carried out with the standard vehicle power supply not installed), verify that the on-board electrical system feeding the eCall in-vehicle system remained intact. This shall be verified by a record of a test engineer confirming a successful check of the integrity of the on-board electrical system including the dummy in-vehicle power source (visual inspection for mechanical damage to either the power source’s mounting bracket or its structure) and the connections via its terminals.3.4.Verification of Power-Supply test3.4.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if the eCall in-vehicle system is capable to communicate for the required period, as specified in point 2 of Annex X. Otherwise, the test is determined to have been failed.’. | | 3.1. | Verification of the Minimum Set of Data (MSD) | | 3.1.1. | Verify each of the following items in at least one of the test eCalls:(a)Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’.(b)Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible).(c)Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded.(d)Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application.(e)Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall.(f)Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.(g)Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds. | (a) | Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’. | (b) | Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible). | (c) | Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded. | (d) | Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application. | (e) | Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall. | (f) | Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’. | (g) | Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds. | | 3.2. | If the automatic test eCall could not be performed successfully due to vehicle-external factors, it shall be permissible to verify the automatic trigger following the impact via the internal record transaction function of the in-vehicle system. This register shall be capable to store received trigger signals in non-volatile memory. The test engineer shall have access to the data stored in the in-vehicle system and shall verify that no record of automatic trigger signal is stored before the impact event and that a record of an automatic trigger signal is stored after the impact event. | | 3.3. | If the test eCall was performed with the vehicle connected to an off-vehicle power supply (in cases where the impact test was carried out with the standard vehicle power supply not installed), verify that the on-board electrical system feeding the eCall in-vehicle system remained intact. This shall be verified by a record of a test engineer confirming a successful check of the integrity of the on-board electrical system including the dummy in-vehicle power source (visual inspection for mechanical damage to either the power source’s mounting bracket or its structure) and the connections via its terminals. | | 3.4. | Verification of Power-Supply test | | 3.4.1. | The requirement is determined to have been passed if the eCall in-vehicle system is capable to communicate for the required period, as specified in point 2 of Annex X. Otherwise, the test is determined to have been failed.’.
| 3.1. | Verification of the Minimum Set of Data (MSD)
| 3.1.1. | Verify each of the following items in at least one of the test eCalls:(a)Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’.(b)Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible).(c)Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded.(d)Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application.(e)Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall.(f)Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.(g)Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds. | (a) | Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’. | (b) | Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible). | (c) | Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded. | (d) | Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application. | (e) | Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall. | (f) | Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’. | (g) | Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds.
(a) | Verify that an eCall was triggered automatically by the full-scale impact event. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received an eCall following the impact event and that the MSD control indicator was set to ‘automatically initiated eCall’.
(b) | Verify that the eCall status indicator indicated an eCall sequence following the automatic or manual trigger. This shall be verified by a record showing that an indication sequence was performed on all sensory channels specified in the manufacturer’s documentation (visual and/or audible).
(c) | Verify that an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the vehicle following the automatic trigger was received and successfully decoded.
(d) | Verify that the MSD contained accurate vehicle-specific data. This shall be verified by a record of the dedicated PSAP test point showing that the information transmitted in the fields regarding vehicle type, vehicle identification number (VIN) and vehicle propulsion storage type does not deviate from the information specified in the type-approval application.
(e) | Verify that the MSD contained an accurate, up-to-date location. This shall be verified in accordance with the Positioning Test Procedure as defined in point 2.5 of Annex I by a test record showing that the deviation between IVS location and true location, d_IVS, is less than 150 metres and the confidence bit transmitted to the PSAP test point indicates ‘position can be trusted’. If no GNSS signals are available at the impact test location, the vehicle can be moved to an appropriate location before performing the test eCall.
(f) | Verify that the MSD contained the two recent locations before the generation of the data for the MSD. This shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the ‘recentVehicleLocationN1’ and ‘recentVehicleLocationN2’.
(g) | Verify that the MSD contained an up-to-date timestamp. This shall be verified by a test record showing that the timestamp contained in the MSD received by the PSAP test point does not deviate from the exact recorded time of the trigger activation by more than 60 seconds.
| 3.2. | If the automatic test eCall could not be performed successfully due to vehicle-external factors, it shall be permissible to verify the automatic trigger following the impact via the internal record transaction function of the in-vehicle system. This register shall be capable to store received trigger signals in non-volatile memory. The test engineer shall have access to the data stored in the in-vehicle system and shall verify that no record of automatic trigger signal is stored before the impact event and that a record of an automatic trigger signal is stored after the impact event.
| 3.3. | If the test eCall was performed with the vehicle connected to an off-vehicle power supply (in cases where the impact test was carried out with the standard vehicle power supply not installed), verify that the on-board electrical system feeding the eCall in-vehicle system remained intact. This shall be verified by a record of a test engineer confirming a successful check of the integrity of the on-board electrical system including the dummy in-vehicle power source (visual inspection for mechanical damage to either the power source’s mounting bracket or its structure) and the connections via its terminals.
| 3.4. | Verification of Power-Supply test
| 3.4.1. | The requirement is determined to have been passed if the eCall in-vehicle system is capable to communicate for the required period, as specified in point 2 of Annex X. Otherwise, the test is determined to have been failed.’.

ANNEX IIIAnnex III to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 is amended as follows:

(1) | point 1.1.2. is deleted;
(2) | point 2.1. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.Purpose of the audio equipment crash resistance test procedureThe purpose of this test is to verify that loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are successfully connected and that the audio equipment remained functional after the vehicle has been subjected to the frontal impact or the side impact test.’ | ‘2.1. | Purpose of the audio equipment crash resistance test procedureThe purpose of this test is to verify that loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are successfully connected and that the audio equipment remained functional after the vehicle has been subjected to the frontal impact or the side impact test.’
‘2.1. | Purpose of the audio equipment crash resistance test procedureThe purpose of this test is to verify that loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are successfully connected and that the audio equipment remained functional after the vehicle has been subjected to the frontal impact or the side impact test.’
(3) | point 2.3.1. is repaced by the following:‘2.3.1.The sustained functionality of the audio equipment shall be verified by performing a test eCall after the impact test and using the voice communication channel between the vehicle and the PSAP test point.’; | ‘2.3.1. | The sustained functionality of the audio equipment shall be verified by performing a test eCall after the impact test and using the voice communication channel between the vehicle and the PSAP test point.’;
‘2.3.1. | The sustained functionality of the audio equipment shall be verified by performing a test eCall after the impact test and using the voice communication channel between the vehicle and the PSAP test point.’;
(4) | points 2.5. and 2.5.1. are replaced by the following:‘2.5.Test conditions2.5.1.Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network;(d)if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system;(e)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(f)an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’; | 2.5.1. | Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network;(d)if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system;(e)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(f)an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point; | (c) | a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; | (d) | if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system; | (e) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; | (f) | an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’;
2.5.1. | Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network;(d)if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system;(e)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(f)an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point; | (c) | a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; | (d) | if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system; | (e) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; | (f) | an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’;
(a) | one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between technical service and manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or the eCall in-vehicle system is registered so that a call can be started from the PSAP test point;
(c) | a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network;
(d) | if applicable, the TPS system is deactivated or will automatically switch to the 112-based system;
(e) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;
(f) | an external power supply source can be used, in case where power capacity (main and back-up) is no longer available following the test procedure set out in Annex II.’;
(5) | points 2.6. and 2.6.1. are replaced by the following:‘2.6.Test method2.6.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger via the in-vehicle HMI and wait until the loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are connected and ready for voice communication or perform a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.’; | 2.6.1. | Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger via the in-vehicle HMI and wait until the loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are connected and ready for voice communication or perform a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.’;
2.6.1. | Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger via the in-vehicle HMI and wait until the loudspeaker(s) and microphone(s) are connected and ready for voice communication or perform a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.’;
(6) | points 2.6.3. and 2.6.4. are replaced by the following:‘2.6.3.Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).2.6.4.If the requirements cannot be fulfilled due to impairments introduced by the PSAP test point or the transmission medium, the test eCall may be repeated, if required in an adapted test setup.’; | ‘2.6.3. | Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). | 2.6.4. | If the requirements cannot be fulfilled due to impairments introduced by the PSAP test point or the transmission medium, the test eCall may be repeated, if required in an adapted test setup.’;
‘2.6.3. | Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
2.6.4. | If the requirements cannot be fulfilled due to impairments introduced by the PSAP test point or the transmission medium, the test eCall may be repeated, if required in an adapted test setup.’;
(7) | in the Appendix, point 3.1. (c) is replaced by the following:‘(c)Zij kunnen de besluiten nemen.De meeste mensen hadden het wel door.’. | ‘(c) | Zij kunnen de besluiten nemen.De meeste mensen hadden het wel door.’.
‘(c) | Zij kunnen de besluiten nemen.De meeste mensen hadden het wel door.’.

ANNEX IVAnnex IV to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 is amended as follows:

(1) | in point 1, the following point 1.1.1. is inserted after point 1.1.:‘1.1.1.In case of an optional TPS eCall system, the TPS eCall related tests set out in section 9.8 of standard EN 16454:2023 remain applicable for the Declaration of Conformity of eCall in-vehicle system after 31 December 2025.’; | ‘1.1.1. | In case of an optional TPS eCall system, the TPS eCall related tests set out in section 9.8 of standard EN 16454:2023 remain applicable for the Declaration of Conformity of eCall in-vehicle system after 31 December 2025.’;
‘1.1.1. | In case of an optional TPS eCall system, the TPS eCall related tests set out in section 9.8 of standard EN 16454:2023 remain applicable for the Declaration of Conformity of eCall in-vehicle system after 31 December 2025.’;
(2) | point 2.3. is replaced by the following:‘2.3.The deactivation of the 112-based system while the TPS system is active, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’; | ‘2.3. | The deactivation of the 112-based system while the TPS system is active, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’;
‘2.3. | The deactivation of the 112-based system while the TPS system is active, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’;
(3) | points 2.3.1. to 2.3.4. are replaced by the following:‘2.3.1.Before performing the test eCall, ensure:(a)that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system;(d)that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(e)that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.2.3.2.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system.2.3.3.Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point;(b)data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and(c)no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall.2.3.4.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate TPSP test point command (e.g. hang up).’; | ‘2.3.1. | Before performing the test eCall, ensure:(a)that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system;(d)that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(e)that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. | (a) | that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system; | (d) | that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and | (e) | that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. | 2.3.2. | Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system. | 2.3.3. | Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point;(b)data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and(c)no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall. | (a) | an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point; | (b) | data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and | (c) | no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall. | 2.3.4. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate TPSP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
‘2.3.1. | Before performing the test eCall, ensure:(a)that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system;(d)that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(e)that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. | (a) | that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system; | (d) | that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and | (e) | that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
(a) | that one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) | that the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) | that the TPSP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the TPS system;
(d) | that a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and
(e) | that the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
2.3.2. | Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system.
2.3.3. | Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point;(b)data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and(c)no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall. | (a) | an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point; | (b) | data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and | (c) | no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall.
(a) | an eCall was established with the TPSP test point by a successful voice connection to the TPSP test point;
(b) | data was received properly at the TPSP test point including at least the MSD; and
(c) | no eCall was attempted or established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it did not receive an eCall.
2.3.4. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate TPSP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
(4) | point 2.4. is replaced by the following:‘2.4.The fall-back procedure and activation of the 112-based system, in the event that the TPS system does not function, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’; | ‘2.4. | The fall-back procedure and activation of the 112-based system, in the event that the TPS system does not function, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’;
‘2.4. | The fall-back procedure and activation of the 112-based system, in the event that the TPS system does not function, shall be verified by performing a manually triggered test eCall.’;
(5) | points 2.4.1. to 2.4.5. are replaced by the following:‘2.4.1.Modify the TPS system to simulate a failure, selected at the discretion of the technical service that shall result in a fall-back procedure based on the documentation provided by the manufacturer. Such selection shall be documented in the test report.2.4.2.Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(d)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.2.4.3.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system.2.4.4.Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and(b)an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded.2.4.5.Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’; | ‘2.4.1. | Modify the TPS system to simulate a failure, selected at the discretion of the technical service that shall result in a fall-back procedure based on the documentation provided by the manufacturer. Such selection shall be documented in the test report. | 2.4.2. | Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(d)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. | (a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and | (d) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. | 2.4.3. | Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system. | 2.4.4. | Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and(b)an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded. | (a) | an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and | (b) | an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded. | 2.4.5. | Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
‘2.4.1. | Modify the TPS system to simulate a failure, selected at the discretion of the technical service that shall result in a fall-back procedure based on the documentation provided by the manufacturer. Such selection shall be documented in the test report.
2.4.2. | Before performing the test eCall, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and(d)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated. | (a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and | (d) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
(a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) | a false eCall to a genuine PSAP cannot be made over the live network; and
(d) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated.
2.4.3. | Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the TPS system.
2.4.4. | Verify that:(a)an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and(b)an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded. | (a) | an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and | (b) | an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded.
(a) | an eCall was established with the PSAP test point by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point; and
(b) | an MSD was received by the PSAP test point. That shall be verified by a record of the PSAP test point showing that an MSD emitted from the eCall system following the trigger was received and successfully decoded.
2.4.5. | Clear down the test eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).’;
(6) | point 2.5. is deleted.

ANNEX VAnnex VII to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 is amended as follows:

(1) | point 1.3.1. is replaced by the following:‘1.3.1.The manufacturer shall provide the technical service and the type-approval authority with documentation in accordance with the Table, which shall contain for each item the technical principle applied to monitor the item.’; | ‘1.3.1. | The manufacturer shall provide the technical service and the type-approval authority with documentation in accordance with the Table, which shall contain for each item the technical principle applied to monitor the item.’;
‘1.3.1. | The manufacturer shall provide the technical service and the type-approval authority with documentation in accordance with the Table, which shall contain for each item the technical principle applied to monitor the item.’;
(2) | in the Table, the third row (the second item) is replaced by the following:‘Mobile network antenna is connected’ | ‘Mobile network antenna is connected’ |
‘Mobile network antenna is connected’ |
(3) | in the Table, the fifth row (the fourth item) is replaced by the following:‘GNSS antenna is connected’ | ‘GNSS antenna is connected’ |
‘GNSS antenna is connected’ |
(4) | point 2.1.1. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.1.The following test shall be performed, separately for each of the items listed in the Table, on the vehicle with an eCall in-vehicle system installed in accordance with Article 5, on the STU in accordance with Article 7 or on the component, that is made part of a complete system for the purpose of the test, in accordance with Article 6.’; | ‘2.1.1. | The following test shall be performed, separately for each of the items listed in the Table, on the vehicle with an eCall in-vehicle system installed in accordance with Article 5, on the STU in accordance with Article 7 or on the component, that is made part of a complete system for the purpose of the test, in accordance with Article 6.’;
‘2.1.1. | The following test shall be performed, separately for each of the items listed in the Table, on the vehicle with an eCall in-vehicle system installed in accordance with Article 5, on the STU in accordance with Article 7 or on the component, that is made part of a complete system for the purpose of the test, in accordance with Article 6.’;
(5) | point 2.1.2. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.2.Simulate a malfunction of the eCall system by introducing a critical failure monitored by the self-test function according to the technical documentation provided by the manufacturer. The manufacturer shall provide a list of the checks and a description of how to trigger them.’; | ‘2.1.2. | Simulate a malfunction of the eCall system by introducing a critical failure monitored by the self-test function according to the technical documentation provided by the manufacturer. The manufacturer shall provide a list of the checks and a description of how to trigger them.’;
‘2.1.2. | Simulate a malfunction of the eCall system by introducing a critical failure monitored by the self-test function according to the technical documentation provided by the manufacturer. The manufacturer shall provide a list of the checks and a description of how to trigger them.’;
(6) | in point 2.1.5., the following sentence is added:‘For the failures which cannot be simulated or injected by the technical service, the manufactures shall provide a documentation describing the test procedure and the test results to the technical service.’;
(7) | point 3.1. is replaced by the following:‘3.1.When the manufacturer submits an application for revision or extension of an existing type-approval for the purpose of including an alternative GNSS antenna, electronic control unit, mobile network antenna and/or power source components, no retesting of 112-based eCall in-vehicle system components shall be required for the purpose of fulfilling the requirements of this Annex, provided that those type-approved components possess at least the same functional features and that they are covered by this Annex in accordance with Article 6(3).’; | ‘3.1. | When the manufacturer submits an application for revision or extension of an existing type-approval for the purpose of including an alternative GNSS antenna, electronic control unit, mobile network antenna and/or power source components, no retesting of 112-based eCall in-vehicle system components shall be required for the purpose of fulfilling the requirements of this Annex, provided that those type-approved components possess at least the same functional features and that they are covered by this Annex in accordance with Article 6(3).’;
‘3.1. | When the manufacturer submits an application for revision or extension of an existing type-approval for the purpose of including an alternative GNSS antenna, electronic control unit, mobile network antenna and/or power source components, no retesting of 112-based eCall in-vehicle system components shall be required for the purpose of fulfilling the requirements of this Annex, provided that those type-approved components possess at least the same functional features and that they are covered by this Annex in accordance with Article 6(3).’;
(8) | the following point 4 is added:‘4.Technical requirements to enable periodic roadworthiness tests4.1.PurposeThe purpose shall be to verify the following features of the eCall system:(a)its correct operational status, by visual observation of the failure warning signal status following the activation of the vehicle master control switch and any bulb check. Where the failure warning signal is only displayed in a common space (the area on which two or more information functions or symbols may be displayed, but not simultaneously), it must be checked first that the common space is functional prior to the failure warning signal status check;(b)the correct accuracy of the Minimum Set of Data (by generating and reading current MSD), the correct function and condition of the eCall components and the backup-battery (if applicable), by the use of an electronic vehicle interface;(c)the software integrity, by external verification of version information, hash values and system configurations against reference data;(d)the correct functionality of the voice communication, by performing an audio echo and speaker test using the vehicle interface.4.2.Requirements4.2.1.The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be able to provide the information to perform the methods of testing specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU using the electronic vehicle interface.4.2.2.The manufacturer shall make available the technical information, which shall contain the instructions for reading out the information or performing the checks related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU.4.3.Test procedure4.3.1.It shall be verified that the information related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13 of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU, can be read out from the eCall system using the electronic vehicle interface according to the instructions of the manufacturer.4.3.2.It shall be verified that an echo and speaker test can be performed to check the correct functionality of the voice communication via the vehicle interface.’. | (a) | its correct operational status, by visual observation of the failure warning signal status following the activation of the vehicle master control switch and any bulb check. Where the failure warning signal is only displayed in a common space (the area on which two or more information functions or symbols may be displayed, but not simultaneously), it must be checked first that the common space is functional prior to the failure warning signal status check; | (b) | the correct accuracy of the Minimum Set of Data (by generating and reading current MSD), the correct function and condition of the eCall components and the backup-battery (if applicable), by the use of an electronic vehicle interface; | (c) | the software integrity, by external verification of version information, hash values and system configurations against reference data; | (d) | the correct functionality of the voice communication, by performing an audio echo and speaker test using the vehicle interface. | | 4.2.1. | The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be able to provide the information to perform the methods of testing specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU using the electronic vehicle interface. | | 4.2.2. | The manufacturer shall make available the technical information, which shall contain the instructions for reading out the information or performing the checks related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU. | | 4.3.1. | It shall be verified that the information related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13 of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU, can be read out from the eCall system using the electronic vehicle interface according to the instructions of the manufacturer. | | 4.3.2. | It shall be verified that an echo and speaker test can be performed to check the correct functionality of the voice communication via the vehicle interface.’.
(a) | its correct operational status, by visual observation of the failure warning signal status following the activation of the vehicle master control switch and any bulb check. Where the failure warning signal is only displayed in a common space (the area on which two or more information functions or symbols may be displayed, but not simultaneously), it must be checked first that the common space is functional prior to the failure warning signal status check;
(b) | the correct accuracy of the Minimum Set of Data (by generating and reading current MSD), the correct function and condition of the eCall components and the backup-battery (if applicable), by the use of an electronic vehicle interface;
(c) | the software integrity, by external verification of version information, hash values and system configurations against reference data;
(d) | the correct functionality of the voice communication, by performing an audio echo and speaker test using the vehicle interface.
| 4.2.1. | The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system shall be able to provide the information to perform the methods of testing specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU using the electronic vehicle interface.
| 4.2.2. | The manufacturer shall make available the technical information, which shall contain the instructions for reading out the information or performing the checks related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13, of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU.
| 4.3.1. | It shall be verified that the information related to each item specified in Section 3, point 7.13 of Annex I to Directive 2014/45/EU, can be read out from the eCall system using the electronic vehicle interface according to the instructions of the manufacturer.
| 4.3.2. | It shall be verified that an echo and speaker test can be performed to check the correct functionality of the voice communication via the vehicle interface.’.

ANNEX VIAnnex VIII to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79 is amended as follows:

(1) | Part I is amended as follows:(a)point 2.1. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’;(b)point 2.2. is deleted;(c)in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’;(d)points 3.2. and 3.2.1. are deleted;(e)point 3.2.2. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;(f)points 3.2.3. and 3.2.4. are deleted;(g)in section 4, the title is replaced by the following:‘4.Test method’;(h)points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;(i)in section 4, the following points 4.3., 4.4. and 4.5. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240).4.5.Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’;(j)the following section 5 is added:‘5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).5.2.The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’; | (a) | point 2.1. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’; | ‘2.1. | The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’; | (b) | point 2.2. is deleted; | (c) | in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’; | ‘3. | Test conditions’; | (d) | points 3.2. and 3.2.1. are deleted; | (e) | point 3.2.2. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | ‘3.2. | Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; | (d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (f) | points 3.2.3. and 3.2.4. are deleted; | (g) | in section 4, the title is replaced by the following:‘4.Test method’; | (h) | points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; | ‘4.1. | Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. | 4.2. | Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; | (i) | in section 4, the following points 4.3., 4.4. and 4.5. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240).4.5.Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’; | ‘4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). | 4.4. | Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240). | 4.5. | Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’; | (j) | the following section 5 is added:‘5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).5.2.The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’; | | 5.1. | The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour). | | 5.2. | The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’;
(a) | point 2.1. is replaced by the following:‘2.1.The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’; | ‘2.1. | The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’;
‘2.1. | The 112-based eCall in-vehicle system or STU is not available for communication with the PSAP or at least does not automatically respond if the PSAP initiates the communication after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).’;
(b) | point 2.2. is deleted;
(c) | in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’; | ‘3. | Test conditions’;
‘3. | Test conditions’;
(d) | points 3.2. and 3.2.1. are deleted;
(e) | point 3.2.2. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | ‘3.2. | Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; | (d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.2. | Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; | (d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) | one of the connection procedures specified in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated;
(d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(f) | points 3.2.3. and 3.2.4. are deleted;
(g) | in section 4, the title is replaced by the following:‘4.Test method’;
(h) | points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; | ‘4.1. | Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. | 4.2. | Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
‘4.1. | Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
4.2. | Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
(i) | in section 4, the following points 4.3., 4.4. and 4.5. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240).4.5.Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’; | ‘4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). | 4.4. | Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240). | 4.5. | Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’;
‘4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. | Leave the 112-based eCall IVS switched on and wait for at least 63 min (1 hour + 5 % margin according to EN 16454 and EN 17240).
4.5. | Via the PSAP test point, attempt to connect to the 112-based eCall IVS.’;
(j) | the following section 5 is added:‘5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).5.2.The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’; | | 5.1. | The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour). | | 5.2. | The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’;
| 5.1. | The requirement is determined to have been passed if the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system is neither available for communication with the PSAP nor automatically responds to the call when the PSAP test point attempts to connect after expiry of the eCall timer T9 (1 hour).
| 5.2. | The establishment of connection with the 112-based eCall IVS or the automatic answering to the call when the PSAP test point initiates the communication constitute a failure.’;
(2) | Part II is amended as follows:(a)in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;(b)in section 4, points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced with the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;(c)in section 4, the following points 4.3. and 4.4. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; | (a) | in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | ‘3.3. | Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and | (d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (b) | in section 4, points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced with the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; | ‘4.1. | Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. | 4.2. | Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; | (c) | in section 4, the following points 4.3. and 4.4. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; | ‘4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). | 4.4. | 13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
(a) | in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | ‘3.3. | Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and | (d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.3. | Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and | (d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(b) | in section 4, points 4.1. and 4.2. are replaced with the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’; | ‘4.1. | Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. | 4.2. | Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
‘4.1. | Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
4.2. | Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.’;
(c) | in section 4, the following points 4.3. and 4.4. are added:‘4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; | ‘4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). | 4.4. | 13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
‘4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. | 13 hours after an eCall has been placed, the technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
(3) | Part III is amended as follows:(a)point 3.1 is replaced by the following:‘3.1.The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’;(b)in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;(c)point 4.1. is replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’;(d)in section 4, the following points 4.2., 4.3 and 4.4. are added:‘4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; | (a) | point 3.1 is replaced by the following:‘3.1.The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’; | ‘3.1. | The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’; | (b) | in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | ‘3.3. | Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and | (d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (c) | point 4.1. is replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’; | ‘4.1. | Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’; | (d) | in section 4, the following points 4.2., 4.3 and 4.4. are added:‘4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; | ‘4.2. | Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point. | 4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). | 4.4. | The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
(a) | point 3.1 is replaced by the following:‘3.1.The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’; | ‘3.1. | The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’;
‘3.1. | The technical service shall be facilitated to have access to the part of the system where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory.’;
(b) | in section 3, the following point 3.3. is added:‘3.3.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | ‘3.3. | Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and | (d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.3. | Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and | (d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(c) | point 4.1. is replaced by the following:‘4.1.Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’; | ‘4.1. | Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’;
‘4.1. | Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.’;
(d) | in section 4, the following points 4.2., 4.3 and 4.4. are added:‘4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’; | ‘4.2. | Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point. | 4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). | 4.4. | The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
‘4.2. | Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.
4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
4.4. | The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the vehicle location data are stored in the IVS internal memory. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any stored locations so that they can be viewed by the tester.’;
(4) | Part IV is amended as follows:(a)in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’;(b)point 3.2 is replaced by the following:‘3.2.The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’;(c)point 3.2.1. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.1.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;(d)point 3.4 is deleted;(e)the following sections 4 and 5 are added:‘4.Test method4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated.4.5.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.4.6.The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored.5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory.5.2.The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’. | (a) | in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’; | (b) | point 3.2 is replaced by the following:‘3.2.The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’; | ‘3.2. | The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’; | (c) | point 3.2.1. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.1.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | ‘3.2.1. | Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and | (d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (d) | point 3.4 is deleted; | (e) | the following sections 4 and 5 are added:‘4.Test method4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated.4.5.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.4.6.The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored.5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory.5.2.The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’. | | 4.1. | Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. | | 4.2. | Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point. | | 4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). | | 4.4. | If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated. | | 4.5. | The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester. | | 4.6. | The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored. | | 5.1. | The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory. | | 5.2. | The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’.
(a) | in section 3, the title is replaced by the following:‘3.Test conditions’;
(b) | point 3.2 is replaced by the following:‘3.2.The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’; | ‘3.2. | The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’;
‘3.2. | The TPS system shall be disabled for the duration of the eCall.’;
(c) | point 3.2.1. is replaced by the following:‘3.2.1.Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | ‘3.2.1. | Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and | (d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
‘3.2.1. | Before performing the test, ensure that:(a)one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;(b)the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;(c)the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and(d)any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’; | (a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall; | (b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system; | (c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and | (d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(a) | one of the connection procedures defined in point 2.7 of Annex I, as agreed between the technical service and the manufacturer, will be applied for any test eCall;
(b) | the dedicated PSAP test point is available to receive an eCall emitted by the 112-based system;
(c) | the vehicle ignition or master control switch is activated; and
(d) | any TPS or added-value service system is disabled.’;
(d) | point 3.4 is deleted;
(e) | the following sections 4 and 5 are added:‘4.Test method4.1.Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.4.2.Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.4.3.Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).4.4.If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated.4.5.The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.4.6.The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored.5.Assessment5.1.The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory.5.2.The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’. | | 4.1. | Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system. | | 4.2. | Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point. | | 4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up). | | 4.4. | If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated. | | 4.5. | The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester. | | 4.6. | The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored. | | 5.1. | The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory. | | 5.2. | The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’.
| 4.1. | Perform a test eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
| 4.2. | Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received a call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.
| 4.3. | Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
| 4.4. | If the call attempt of the 112-based system fails during the test, the test procedure may be repeated.
| 4.5. | The technical service tester shall be facilitated with access to where the eCall log files are stored in the IVS. This will involve the potential to download from the IVS any log files so that they can be viewed by the tester.
| 4.6. | The lack of a log file in the TPS system shall be verified via access to the part of the system where eCall log files are stored.
| 5.1. | The requirement is determined to have been passed if no log files are present in the TPS system in-vehicle system memory.
| 5.2. | The presence of a log file in the TPS system pertaining to an eCall that has occurred via the 112-based system constitutes a failure.’.

ANNEX VIIIn Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/79, the following Annex X is added:

‘ANNEX X
Test procedure for the verification of the performance of the back-up power supply 1. Purpose
The purpose of this test is to make sure that the eCall in-vehicle system or eCall STU is capable to communicate for the period specified in point 2. 2. Requirements
The eCall system or eCall STU shall be operable for a period of at least 5 minutes in voice communication mode followed by 60 minutes in call-back mode (idle mode, registered in the network) followed by another period of at least 5 minutes in voice communication mode. 3. Test conditions
The following verification test shall be performed on an eCall STU that has been subjected to the high-severity deceleration test according to Annex I.
If the eCall STU does not include the microphone(s) and speaker(s) for the eCall system, then representative microphone(s) and speaker(s) shall be added to the test setup in order to execute the test from this Annex.
3.1. Test method
3.1.1. Perform an eCall by applying a manual trigger of the system.
3.1.2. Verify that a call was established with the PSAP test point by a record of the PSAP test point showing that it received the call or by a successful voice connection to the PSAP test point.
3.1.3. Disconnect the main power source.
3.1.4. Read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point.
3.1.5. Clear down the eCall using the appropriate PSAP test point command (e.g. hang up).
3.1.6. Wait for 56 minutes after the call was ended.
3.1.7. Initiate a call from the PSAP test point to the eCall in-vehicle system.
3.1.8. If the call is automatically accepted, read out any text for at least 5 minutes at the PSAP test point, otherwise the test is finished.
3.2. Assessment
3.2.1. The requirement is determined to have been passed if the eCall STU is capable to communicate for the required period, as specified in point 2. 3.2.2. The incapacity of the 112-based eCall in-vehicle system to communicate for the period referred to in point 2 constitutes a failure.
’.

Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2025/1768 of 7 May 2025 amending Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803 as regards rules of procedure for the exercise of the power to impose fines or periodic penalty payments by the European Securities Markets Authority with respect to consolidated tape providers

Official Journalof the European Union ENL series
2025/1768 2.9.2025
(1) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803(2)specifies the rules of procedure that apply to the European Securities and Markets Authority (‘ESMA’) for the exercise of the power to impose fines, as referred to in Article 38h of Regulation (EU) No 600/2014, or periodic penalty payments, as referred to in Article 38i of that Regulation, regarding data reporting service providers (‘DRSPs’). The scope of that Delegated Regulation was limited to approved publication arrangements and approved reporting mechanisms subject to ESMA supervision. The scope of that Delegated Regulation did not cover other DRSPs subject to ESMA supervision, including consolidated tape providers (‘CTPs’). That limited scope was due to the absence of DRSPs providing consolidated tape services in the Union and to the pending review of Regulation (EU) No 600/2014, which was amended by Regulation (EU) 2024/791 of the European Parliament and of the Council(3)(‘MiFIR reform’). The MiFIR reform entered into force on 28 March 2024.
(2) The MiFIR reform removed obstacles to the emergence of CTPs in the Union and set a timeline for the selection and authorisation by ESMA of a CTP for bonds, a CTP for shares and exchange-traded funds, and a CTP for over-the-counter derivatives. In light of the upcoming CTP authorisation process, it is necessary to amend the scope of Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803, to ensure it covers all DRSPs subject to ESMA supervision, including CTPs.
(3) Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803 should therefore be amended accordingly,
THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) No 600/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 May 2014 on markets in financial instruments and amending Regulation (EU) No 648/2012(1), and in particular Article 38k(10) thereof,
(1) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803(2)specifies the rules of procedure that apply to the European Securities and Markets Authority (‘ESMA’) for the exercise of the power to impose fines, as referred to in Article 38h of Regulation (EU) No 600/2014, or periodic penalty payments, as referred to in Article 38i of that Regulation, regarding data reporting service providers (‘DRSPs’). The scope of that Delegated Regulation was limited to approved publication arrangements and approved reporting mechanisms subject to ESMA supervision. The scope of that Delegated Regulation did not cover other DRSPs subject to ESMA supervision, including consolidated tape providers (‘CTPs’). That limited scope was due to the absence of DRSPs providing consolidated tape services in the Union and to the pending review of Regulation (EU) No 600/2014, which was amended by Regulation (EU) 2024/791 of the European Parliament and of the Council(3)(‘MiFIR reform’). The MiFIR reform entered into force on 28 March 2024.
(2) The MiFIR reform removed obstacles to the emergence of CTPs in the Union and set a timeline for the selection and authorisation by ESMA of a CTP for bonds, a CTP for shares and exchange-traded funds, and a CTP for over-the-counter derivatives. In light of the upcoming CTP authorisation process, it is necessary to amend the scope of Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803, to ensure it covers all DRSPs subject to ESMA supervision, including CTPs.
(3) Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803 should therefore be amended accordingly,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Amendment to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803
Article 1
Article 1 of Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803 is replaced by the following:
This Delegated Regulation applies to “data reporting services providers”, or “DRSPs”, as defined in Article 2(1)(36a) of Regulation (EU) No 600/2014, that are subject to ESMA supervision.’.

Entry into force
Article 2
This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) No 600/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 May 2014 on markets in financial instruments and amending Regulation (EU) No 648/2012(1), and in particular Article 38k(10) thereof,
(1) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803(2)specifies the rules of procedure that apply to the European Securities and Markets Authority (‘ESMA’) for the exercise of the power to impose fines, as referred to in Article 38h of Regulation (EU) No 600/2014, or periodic penalty payments, as referred to in Article 38i of that Regulation, regarding data reporting service providers (‘DRSPs’). The scope of that Delegated Regulation was limited to approved publication arrangements and approved reporting mechanisms subject to ESMA supervision. The scope of that Delegated Regulation did not cover other DRSPs subject to ESMA supervision, including consolidated tape providers (‘CTPs’). That limited scope was due to the absence of DRSPs providing consolidated tape services in the Union and to the pending review of Regulation (EU) No 600/2014, which was amended by Regulation (EU) 2024/791 of the European Parliament and of the Council(3)(‘MiFIR reform’). The MiFIR reform entered into force on 28 March 2024.
(2) The MiFIR reform removed obstacles to the emergence of CTPs in the Union and set a timeline for the selection and authorisation by ESMA of a CTP for bonds, a CTP for shares and exchange-traded funds, and a CTP for over-the-counter derivatives. In light of the upcoming CTP authorisation process, it is necessary to amend the scope of Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803, to ensure it covers all DRSPs subject to ESMA supervision, including CTPs.
(3) Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803 should therefore be amended accordingly,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Amendment to Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803

Article 1 of Delegated Regulation (EU) 2022/803 is replaced by the following:
This Delegated Regulation applies to “data reporting services providers”, or “DRSPs”, as defined in Article 2(1)(36a) of Regulation (EU) No 600/2014, that are subject to ESMA supervision.’.

Entry into force

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.

Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2025/1726 of 27 June 2025 amending Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 as regards the correction of the territorial scope of provisions concerning short-necked clam and red seabream

Official Journalof the European Union ENL series
2025/1726 30.10.2025
(1) Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 lays down technical measures for the conservation of fisheries resources and the protection of marine ecosystems. Annex VI thereto provides for technical measures in the North Western Waters and Annex VII for such measures in the South Western Waters at regional level.
(2) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2024/3204(2)amended the nineteenth entry of the table in Part A of that Annex VI and the twentieth entry of the table in Part A of that Annex VII, to set a Minimum Conservation Reference Size (MCRS) of 36 cm for red seabream, respectively in ICES subareas 6 and 7 and in ICES subarea 8.
(3) The scope of application for the MCRS of 36 cm for red seabream should be clarified since the territorial scope of Delegated Regulation (EU) 2024/3204, differing from previous similar delegated acts, was not specified by that delegated act. In the North Western Waters it should be limited to ICES subareas 6 and 7; and in the South Western Waters it should be limited to ICES subarea 8. In ICES subarea 5 and ICES subareas 9 and 10 (Union waters) and CECAF zones 34.1.1, 34.1.2 and 34.2.0 (Union waters), the minimum conservation reference size of 33 cm is maintained. Such clarification should appear in all official language versions of the text, and Annexes VI and VII to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 should be corrected accordingly.
(4) Delegated Regulation (EU) 2024/3204 amended the twenty-sixth entry of the table in Part A of Annex VII to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241, to change the MCRS of short-necked clam from 35 mm to 32 mm in ICES subarea 8. On 13 January 2025, the Member States brought to the Commission’s attention an error by which the amendment had not included the reference to the statistical rectangle 18E8 in ICES subarea 8 (the Arcachon Basin), in accordance with the joint recommendation.
(5) This error appears in all official language versions of the text, and Annex VII to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 should be corrected accordingly.
(6) The measures introduced by this Regulation applicable to Union waters are in pursuit of the objectives set out in Article 494(1) and (2) of the Trade and Cooperation Agreement between the European Union and the European Atomic Energy Community, of the one part, and the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, of the other part(3)and have regard to the principles referred to in Article 494(3) of that agreement. They are without prejudice to any measures applicable in waters of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.
(7) Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 should therefore be corrected accordingly,
(8) As the measures provided for in this Regulation have a direct impact on the planning of the fishing season for short-necked clam and red seabream and on related economic activities, this Regulation should enter into force on the day following that of its publication. Considering that Delegated Regulation (EU) 2024/3204 entered into force on 1 January 2025, this Regulation should also apply from that date,
(1) In Annex VI, Part A, the nineteenth entry of the table is replaced by the following:‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo)36 cm(*1),(*2) ‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) 36 cm(*1),(*2)
‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) 36 cm(*1),(*2)
‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) 36 cm(*1),(*2)
(2) In Annex VII, Part A, the table is amended as follows:(a)the twentieth entry is replaced by the following:‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo)36 cm(*3),(*4)(b)the twenty-sixth entry is replaced by the following:‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum)35 mm(*5) (a) the twentieth entry is replaced by the following:‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo)36 cm(*3),(*4) ‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) 36 cm(*3),(*4) (b) the twenty-sixth entry is replaced by the following:‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum)35 mm(*5) ‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum) 35 mm(*5)
(a) the twentieth entry is replaced by the following:‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo)36 cm(*3),(*4) ‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) 36 cm(*3),(*4)
‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) 36 cm(*3),(*4)
(b) the twenty-sixth entry is replaced by the following:‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum)35 mm(*5) ‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum) 35 mm(*5)
‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum) 35 mm(*5)
(a) the twentieth entry is replaced by the following:‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo)36 cm(*3),(*4) ‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) 36 cm(*3),(*4)
‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) 36 cm(*3),(*4)
‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) 36 cm(*3),(*4)
(b) the twenty-sixth entry is replaced by the following:‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum)35 mm(*5) ‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum) 35 mm(*5)
‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum) 35 mm(*5)
‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum) 35 mm(*5)
THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 June 2019 on the conservation of fisheries resources and the protection of marine ecosystems through technical measures, amending Council Regulations (EC) No 1967/2006, (EC) No 1224/2009 and Regulations (EU) No 1380/2013, (EU) 2016/1139, (EU) 2018/973, (EU) 2019/472 and (EU) 2019/1022 of the European Parliament and of the Council, and repealing Council Regulations (EC) No 894/97, (EC) No 850/98, (EC) No 2549/2000, (EC) No 254/2002, (EC) No 812/2004 and (EC) No 2187/2005(1), and in particular Article 15(2) thereof,
(1) Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 lays down technical measures for the conservation of fisheries resources and the protection of marine ecosystems. Annex VI thereto provides for technical measures in the North Western Waters and Annex VII for such measures in the South Western Waters at regional level.
(2) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2024/3204(2)amended the nineteenth entry of the table in Part A of that Annex VI and the twentieth entry of the table in Part A of that Annex VII, to set a Minimum Conservation Reference Size (MCRS) of 36 cm for red seabream, respectively in ICES subareas 6 and 7 and in ICES subarea 8.
(3) The scope of application for the MCRS of 36 cm for red seabream should be clarified since the territorial scope of Delegated Regulation (EU) 2024/3204, differing from previous similar delegated acts, was not specified by that delegated act. In the North Western Waters it should be limited to ICES subareas 6 and 7; and in the South Western Waters it should be limited to ICES subarea 8. In ICES subarea 5 and ICES subareas 9 and 10 (Union waters) and CECAF zones 34.1.1, 34.1.2 and 34.2.0 (Union waters), the minimum conservation reference size of 33 cm is maintained. Such clarification should appear in all official language versions of the text, and Annexes VI and VII to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 should be corrected accordingly.
(4) Delegated Regulation (EU) 2024/3204 amended the twenty-sixth entry of the table in Part A of Annex VII to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241, to change the MCRS of short-necked clam from 35 mm to 32 mm in ICES subarea 8. On 13 January 2025, the Member States brought to the Commission’s attention an error by which the amendment had not included the reference to the statistical rectangle 18E8 in ICES subarea 8 (the Arcachon Basin), in accordance with the joint recommendation.
(5) This error appears in all official language versions of the text, and Annex VII to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 should be corrected accordingly.
(6) The measures introduced by this Regulation applicable to Union waters are in pursuit of the objectives set out in Article 494(1) and (2) of the Trade and Cooperation Agreement between the European Union and the European Atomic Energy Community, of the one part, and the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, of the other part(3)and have regard to the principles referred to in Article 494(3) of that agreement. They are without prejudice to any measures applicable in waters of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.
(7) Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 should therefore be corrected accordingly,
(8) As the measures provided for in this Regulation have a direct impact on the planning of the fishing season for short-necked clam and red seabream and on related economic activities, this Regulation should enter into force on the day following that of its publication. Considering that Delegated Regulation (EU) 2024/3204 entered into force on 1 January 2025, this Regulation should also apply from that date,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Article 1
Annexes VI and VII to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 are corrected in accordance with the Annex to this Regulation.

Article 2
This Regulation shall enter into force on the day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.
It shall apply from 1 January 2025.

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,
Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,
Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 June 2019 on the conservation of fisheries resources and the protection of marine ecosystems through technical measures, amending Council Regulations (EC) No 1967/2006, (EC) No 1224/2009 and Regulations (EU) No 1380/2013, (EU) 2016/1139, (EU) 2018/973, (EU) 2019/472 and (EU) 2019/1022 of the European Parliament and of the Council, and repealing Council Regulations (EC) No 894/97, (EC) No 850/98, (EC) No 2549/2000, (EC) No 254/2002, (EC) No 812/2004 and (EC) No 2187/2005(1), and in particular Article 15(2) thereof,
(1) Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 lays down technical measures for the conservation of fisheries resources and the protection of marine ecosystems. Annex VI thereto provides for technical measures in the North Western Waters and Annex VII for such measures in the South Western Waters at regional level.
(2) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2024/3204(2)amended the nineteenth entry of the table in Part A of that Annex VI and the twentieth entry of the table in Part A of that Annex VII, to set a Minimum Conservation Reference Size (MCRS) of 36 cm for red seabream, respectively in ICES subareas 6 and 7 and in ICES subarea 8.
(3) The scope of application for the MCRS of 36 cm for red seabream should be clarified since the territorial scope of Delegated Regulation (EU) 2024/3204, differing from previous similar delegated acts, was not specified by that delegated act. In the North Western Waters it should be limited to ICES subareas 6 and 7; and in the South Western Waters it should be limited to ICES subarea 8. In ICES subarea 5 and ICES subareas 9 and 10 (Union waters) and CECAF zones 34.1.1, 34.1.2 and 34.2.0 (Union waters), the minimum conservation reference size of 33 cm is maintained. Such clarification should appear in all official language versions of the text, and Annexes VI and VII to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 should be corrected accordingly.
(4) Delegated Regulation (EU) 2024/3204 amended the twenty-sixth entry of the table in Part A of Annex VII to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241, to change the MCRS of short-necked clam from 35 mm to 32 mm in ICES subarea 8. On 13 January 2025, the Member States brought to the Commission’s attention an error by which the amendment had not included the reference to the statistical rectangle 18E8 in ICES subarea 8 (the Arcachon Basin), in accordance with the joint recommendation.
(5) This error appears in all official language versions of the text, and Annex VII to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 should be corrected accordingly.
(6) The measures introduced by this Regulation applicable to Union waters are in pursuit of the objectives set out in Article 494(1) and (2) of the Trade and Cooperation Agreement between the European Union and the European Atomic Energy Community, of the one part, and the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, of the other part(3)and have regard to the principles referred to in Article 494(3) of that agreement. They are without prejudice to any measures applicable in waters of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.
(7) Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 should therefore be corrected accordingly,
(8) As the measures provided for in this Regulation have a direct impact on the planning of the fishing season for short-necked clam and red seabream and on related economic activities, this Regulation should enter into force on the day following that of its publication. Considering that Delegated Regulation (EU) 2024/3204 entered into force on 1 January 2025, this Regulation should also apply from that date,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:
Annexes VI and VII to Regulation (EU) 2019/1241 are corrected in accordance with the Annex to this Regulation.
This Regulation shall enter into force on the day following that of its publication in theOfficial Journal of the European Union.
It shall apply from 1 January 2025.
ANNEX
(1) | In Annex VI, Part A, the nineteenth entry of the table is replaced by the following:‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo)36 cm(*1),(*2) | ‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) | 36 cm(*1),(*2)
‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) | 36 cm(*1),(*2)
(2) | In Annex VII, Part A, the table is amended as follows:(a)the twentieth entry is replaced by the following:‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo)36 cm(*3),(*4)(b)the twenty-sixth entry is replaced by the following:‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum)35 mm(*5) | (a) | the twentieth entry is replaced by the following:‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo)36 cm(*3),(*4) | ‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) | 36 cm(*3),(*4) | (b) | the twenty-sixth entry is replaced by the following:‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum)35 mm(*5) | ‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum) | 35 mm(*5)
(a) | the twentieth entry is replaced by the following:‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo)36 cm(*3),(*4) | ‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) | 36 cm(*3),(*4)
‘Red seabream (Pagellus bogaraveo) | 36 cm(*3),(*4)
(b) | the twenty-sixth entry is replaced by the following:‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum)35 mm(*5) | ‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum) | 35 mm(*5)
‘Short-necked clam (Venerupis philippinarum) | 35 mm(*5)
(*1) This minimum conservation reference size shall apply to ICES subareas 6 and 7 until 31 December 2025. The minimum conservation reference size of 33 cm shall apply to ICES subarea 5.
(*2) In the absence of new rules adopted before 31 December 2025, as of 1 January 2026 the applicable minimum conservation reference size shall be 33 cm.’.
(*3) This minimum conservation reference size shall apply to ICES subarea 8 until 31 December 2025. The minimum conservation reference size of 33 cm shall apply to ICES subareas 9 and 10 (Union waters) and CECAF zones 34.1.1, 34.1.2 and 34.2.0 (Union waters).
(*4) In the absence of new rules adopted before 31 December 2025, as of 1 January 2026 the applicable minimum conservation reference size shall be 33 cm.’;
(*5) A minimum conservation reference size of 32 mm shall apply to the Arcachon Basin, Statistical Rectangle 18E8 in ICES subarea 8.’.